NCLEX · PN: Coordinated Care · Topic Study Guide

Safety and Infection Control: Practice Questions & Explanations

35 PN: Coordinated Care questions on safety and infection control, each with a worked explanation citing the source handbook.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN Test Plan and public-domain LPN/LVN reference materials.

Why this topic matters

Safety and infection control questions cover Standard and transmission-based precautions, hand hygiene, fall and injury prevention, restraints, fire safety and handling hazardous materials.

Below are every safety and infection control question in our Pn Safe Care bank. Read each question, try to answer before reading the explanation, and use the source citations to look up anything you want to verify.

1. Which infection control precautions are appropriate for a client with active tuberculosis (TB)?
  1. A Contact precautions: gown and gloves
  2. B Droplet precautions: surgical mask only
  3. C Standard precautions only
  4. D Airborne precautions: private negative-pressure room, N95 respirator for staff, door kept closed, client wears surgical mask when leaving the room

Explanation

Transmission-based precautions for NCLEX-PN: (1) AIRBORNE — for organisms transmitted by very small droplet nuclei suspended in air: TB, measles, varicella (chickenpox), disseminated zoster, COVID-19 in high-risk procedures, SARS, MERS. Requires: private NEGATIVE-PRESSURE room with door closed, N95 respirator (fit-tested) for all staff entering, client wears surgical mask when transported. (2) DROPLET — for larger droplets traveling shorter distances: influenza, pertussis (whooping cough), mumps, rubella, meningococcal infections, group A strep. Requires: private room (or cohort), surgical mask within 3-6 feet, client wears surgical mask when transported. (3) CONTACT — for direct or indirect contact with skin/wounds/surfaces: C. difficile, MRSA, VRE, scabies, RSV, hepatitis A in diapered patients. Requires: gown and gloves on entry, dedicated equipment, hand hygiene with soap and water for C. diff (alcohol-based sanitizer doesn't kill C. diff spores). Standard precautions apply to ALL clients regardless of diagnosis: hand hygiene, gloves when contacting body fluids, mask/eye protection if splashing risk. Memorize the categories and which organisms fit each — heavily tested on NCLEX.
Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Infection Control

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2. What is the correct procedure for using restraints on a client?
  1. A Apply restraints permanently
  2. B Tie restraints to side rails for security
  3. C Apply restraints whenever a client is confused
  4. D Use only as a last resort with a physician's order, the least restrictive type effective, with frequent (every 15-30 min) checks, regular release for ROM and toileting, documented justification, and time-limited orders

Explanation

Restraint use is heavily regulated due to patient safety, dignity, and legal concerns. CMS, Joint Commission, and state laws require strict protocols. Key principles: (1) LAST RESORT — only after less restrictive measures (reorientation, distraction, family presence, bed/chair alarms, environmental modifications, sitter) have failed; (2) ORDER REQUIRED — physician/APN order within specified timeframe (varies); cannot be PRN (as-needed) standing orders; must be specific (type, reason, duration); (3) LEAST RESTRICTIVE — use the minimum restraint needed (e.g., one-point first before four-point); (4) TIME-LIMITED — orders limited to specific timeframes: 4 hours for adults, 2 hours for ages 9-17, 1 hour for under 9; (5) MONITORING — check every 15-30 minutes; assess skin integrity, circulation, respiratory status, hydration, hygiene, ROM, behavioral status, need for continued restraint; (6) RELEASE — every 2 hours minimum for ROM, toileting, hydration, repositioning; (7) ATTACHMENT — to bed FRAME, not side rails (side rails can be raised/lowered, injuring the patient); quick-release knots; (8) DOCUMENTATION — type, time, reason, alternatives tried, checks, releases, removal criteria; (9) CONTINUOUS REASSESSMENT — discontinue ASAP when criteria for removal met. Chemical restraints (medications used to restrict movement, not for medical condition) are also regulated. Side rails as restraints: all four rails up = restraint; partial rails for mobility assistance = not restraint.
Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Restraints

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3. Which is the highest priority action when a fire is discovered in a healthcare facility?
  1. A Lock all doors
  2. B Fight the fire personally
  3. C Use the RACE acronym in order: Rescue clients in immediate danger, Alarm (pull fire alarm, notify staff), Contain (close doors and windows), Extinguish (only if small and safe to do so) or Evacuate
  4. D Call 911 first

Explanation

Fire safety in healthcare facilities uses the RACE acronym: R = RESCUE — clients in immediate danger first; move ambulatory clients first, then assistive clients, then non-ambulatory; A = ALARM — pull the nearest fire alarm, dial the facility emergency code, notify other staff; C = CONTAIN — close doors and windows to contain fire and smoke (a closed door significantly slows fire spread); E = EXTINGUISH (if small and safe) using the PASS technique for fire extinguishers, OR EVACUATE if fire is too large. PASS for fire extinguishers: P = Pull the pin, A = Aim at the base of the fire, S = Squeeze the handle, S = Sweep side to side. Extinguisher types: Class A (ordinary combustibles - paper, wood), Class B (flammable liquids - oil, gas), Class C (electrical), Class D (combustible metals), Class K (kitchen - cooking oils/fats); ABC extinguishers are most common in hospitals. Evacuation priority: ambulatory first (they can move themselves), wheelchair/assisted next, bedridden last (using sheets/blankets to slide them, evacuation chairs). Horizontal evacuation (to next fire compartment) before vertical (down stairs). Never use elevators during a fire.
Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Fire Safety

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4. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
  1. A Isolating all clients
  2. B Hand hygiene — frequent handwashing with soap and water, or alcohol-based hand sanitizer, performed before and after every client contact and per WHO's 5 moments of hand hygiene
  3. C Sterile technique for all care
  4. D Wearing gloves at all times

Explanation

Hand hygiene is THE single most effective infection prevention measure — repeatedly documented in research. WHO's 5 Moments of Hand Hygiene: (1) BEFORE touching a patient; (2) BEFORE clean/aseptic procedure; (3) AFTER body fluid exposure risk; (4) AFTER touching a patient; (5) AFTER touching patient surroundings. Method: (1) Soap and water for visibly soiled hands, after restroom, after contact with C. difficile or known spore-forming organisms, before eating; wet hands, soap, rub all surfaces 20 seconds (palms, backs, between fingers, fingertips, thumbs, wrists), rinse, dry with paper towel, turn off faucet with towel; (2) Alcohol-based sanitizer (60%+ alcohol) for non-visibly-soiled hands — apply enough to cover all surfaces, rub until dry (~20 seconds); FASTER and often MORE EFFECTIVE than soap/water for non-soiled hands, but NOT effective against C. diff, norovirus (use soap/water instead). Common errors: (1) Skipping moments (especially between patients in a shared room); (2) Inadequate technique (too brief, missing fingertips and thumbs); (3) Recontaminating after washing (touching dirty surfaces, using bare hand to turn off faucet); (4) Skipping when gloves are worn (gloves are NOT a substitute for hand hygiene — perform hand hygiene before donning and after removing gloves). Gloves: appropriate for body fluid risk but not always — overuse wastes resources and can paradoxically increase contamination if not changed between tasks. Sterile technique: only required for sterile procedures (urinary catheterization, central line dressing changes, surgery, etc.) — not for routine care. PPE escalates with transmission risk.
Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Hand Hygiene

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5. Which is the correct procedure when administering medications?
  1. A Give medications quickly to save time
  2. B Follow the 'Rights of Medication Administration': Right Patient (2 identifiers), Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right Documentation; verify allergies, check expiration, assess for contraindications, monitor for response
  3. C Skip verification if you're sure
  4. D Give medications based on what the patient requests

Explanation

Medication errors are a leading cause of preventable harm in healthcare. The 'Rights of Medication Administration' (originally 5, expanded to 6-10 depending on source) provide a verification framework: (1) RIGHT PATIENT — two identifiers (name + DOB, name + MRN); never use room number; ask client to state name; check armband; (2) RIGHT MEDICATION — compare order, label, MAR (medication administration record); check three times: when removing from storage, when preparing, before administering; (3) RIGHT DOSE — verify calculation; high-alert medications (heparin, insulin, narcotics, chemo) require independent double-check; (4) RIGHT ROUTE — oral, IV, IM, SC, topical, inhaled, etc.; (5) RIGHT TIME — within 30 min of scheduled time generally; STAT immediately; PRN per orders; (6) RIGHT DOCUMENTATION — chart immediately after administration, not before; include time, route, site (for injectables), patient response; (7) RIGHT REASON — appropriate for client's condition; (8) RIGHT RESPONSE — assess for therapeutic and adverse effects; (9) RIGHT TO REFUSE — respect client autonomy; (10) RIGHT EDUCATION — client understands purpose, side effects, when to report problems. Additional safety checks: verify allergies before EVERY dose; check expiration dates; assess for contraindications (renal function, pregnancy, drug interactions); high-alert medications require special protocols; never crush extended-release or enteric-coated medications; verify NG/G-tube placement before instillation; flush tubes before/after meds. Common errors: wrong patient (failure to use 2 identifiers); look-alike/sound-alike medications; dose calculation errors; route confusion; timing of insulin/glucose-management drugs; failure to check labs (e.g., potassium before giving certain meds, INR before warfarin). When in doubt: STOP and verify. Never give a medication you're uncertain about.
Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Medication Safety

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6. A nurse is caring for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which type of transmission-based precautions are required?
  1. A Droplet precautions
  2. B Airborne precautions — including a negative pressure isolation room (airborne infection isolation room/AIIR) and N95 respirator (not a surgical mask) for all healthcare workers entering the room
  3. C Standard precautions alone
  4. D Contact precautions only

Explanation

TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTIONS are used in addition to standard precautions for clients with known or suspected specific infectious diseases. THREE TYPES based on route of transmission: (1) CONTACT PRECAUTIONS: for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact (touching the patient or contaminated surfaces); examples: MRSA, C. difficile, VRE, wound infections, scabies, head lice;

PPE: GLOVES and GOWN on entry; (2) DROPLET PRECAUTIONS: for diseases spread by large droplets (>5 microns) produced by talking, coughing, sneezing — travel ≤3 feet; examples: influenza, pertussis, meningococcal disease, group A strep, mumps, rubella.

PPE: SURGICAL MASK on entry; private room or cohorting; (3) AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS: for diseases spread by SMALL particles (<5 microns) that remain suspended in air and travel longer distances; examples: TUBERCULOSIS (TB), VARICELLA (chickenpox), MEASLES (rubeola), SARS, MERS, COVID-19 (enhanced).

PPE: N95 RESPIRATOR (or higher, like PAPR) — must be fit-tested; NEGATIVE PRESSURE ROOM (AIIR — airborne infection isolation room) — air flows INTO the room (door kept closed) and is exhausted outside or HEPA filtered; door must remain closed; patient must wear surgical mask if transported through hallways.

Pn nursing responsibilities: apply and remove PPE correctly (donning: gown, mask/respirator, eye protection, gloves; doffing: gloves, eye protection, gown, mask last); perform hand hygiene before and after; maintain isolation room requirements; educate the client about isolation; reinforce respiratory hygiene.

Distinguish: N95 RESPIRATOR (airborne — filters 95% of airborne particles; requires fit-testing) vs. SURGICAL MASK (droplet — larger particles; no fit-test required).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Safe Care — Airborne Precautions

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7. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication using the 10 rights of medication administration. Which 'right' is the nurse verifying when they ask the client to state their name and date of birth?
  1. A Right time
  2. B Right dose
  3. C Right medication
  4. D Right client (right patient) — verifying the client's identity using two identifiers before any medication administration

Explanation

The 10 RIGHTS OF MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION provide a framework for safe drug administration. Asking the client to state their name and date of birth verifies the RIGHT CLIENT (also called right patient).

The 10 rights: (1) RIGHT CLIENT: verify identity using TWO identifiers per Joint Commission standard (name + date of birth; name + medical record number; name + ID band); never rely on room number alone; ask the client to state their name (don't say 'Are you Mr. Smith?' — the client may say yes even if wrong); (2) RIGHT MEDICATION: verify the drug label matches the order three times (when taking from storage, when preparing, before administering); (3) RIGHT DOSE: verify the dose matches the order; calculate if converting; (4) RIGHT ROUTE: oral, IV, IM, SubQ, topical, etc.; verify order matches the available form; (5) RIGHT TIME: verify frequency and when last dose was given; (6) RIGHT DOCUMENTATION: document AFTER administration (not before); (7) RIGHT REASON: does this medication make sense for this client's diagnosis? (pharmaceutical knowledge); (8) RIGHT RESPONSE: assess effectiveness after administration (pain medication: did pain improve?); monitor for adverse effects; (9) RIGHT EDUCATION: client understands what the medication is for and its common side effects; (10) RIGHT TO REFUSE: client has the right to refuse medication; document refusal, notify provider.

Additional safety checks: HIGH ALERT MEDICATIONS (insulin, heparin, anticoagulants, concentrated electrolytes, opioids) require INDEPENDENT DOUBLE-CHECKS by two nurses before administration at most facilities; LOOK-ALIKE/SOUND-ALIKE (LASA) medications are a common source of errors; storage separation and labeling help prevent LASA errors. TWO-IDENTIFIER requirement is from The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Safe Care — 10 Rights of Medication Administration

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8. A patient has C. difficile (C. diff) infection. Which isolation precaution level is required?
  1. A Droplet precautions
  2. B Airborne precautions
  3. C Contact precautions — C. diff spreads via the fecal-oral route through spores that survive on surfaces; requires gloves and gown, dedicated equipment, and hand washing with SOAP AND WATER (not alcohol gel)
  4. D Standard precautions only

Explanation

C. DIFFICILE requires CONTACT PRECAUTIONS: Private room or cohorting; gloves AND gown when entering the room; dedicated equipment (thermometer, stethoscope, BP cuff — not shared); HAND HYGIENE with SOAP AND WATER — alcohol-based hand sanitiser is NOT effective against C. diff spores. This is the most critical nursing point for C. diff: alcohol gel does not kill the spores. Soap and water physically removes them. Environmental cleaning with sporicidal agents (sodium hypochlorite/bleach solution) is required. C. diff spores survive on surfaces for months. Contact precautions continue for at least 48 hours after diarrhea resolves. PPE removal: remove gown first, then gloves, then perform hand hygiene before leaving the room.
Source: NCLEX-PN, C. diff Contact Precautions

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9. A patient is ordered NPO (nothing by mouth) after midnight for morning surgery. The patient asks for their routine blood pressure medication at 6 AM. What should the nurse do?
  1. A Hold only solid food; give all medications as ordered
  2. B Withhold all medications — NPO means nothing by mouth
  3. C Clarify the order with the surgeon or anaesthesiologist — many medications (especially antihypertensives, cardiac drugs, and seizure medications) are specifically ordered to be given WITH A SIP OF WATER even when NPO for surgery; never assume
  4. D Give all routine medications with a full glass of water

Explanation

NPO FOR SURGERY typically means NPO after midnight for solid foods. Many surgical NPO orders specifically state 'NPO except medications with sip of water' or list specific medications to continue. For antihypertensives specifically: uncontrolled hypertension creates surgical risk — most anaesthesiologists want the patient's BP controlled; abrupt withdrawal of some medications (especially beta-blockers) creates rebound risk. NURSE'S RESPONSIBILITY: Check the surgical NPO order carefully — it may specify which medications to hold vs give; if unclear, contact the surgeon or anaesthesiologist for clarification before surgery; document the clarification and action taken. Never assume 'NPO means nothing' without checking — holding critical medications pre-operatively can create dangerous conditions.
Source: NCLEX-PN, NPO and Medication Administration

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10. A nurse is preparing to give insulin for the first time on a new unit. What safety check is critical BEFORE administering any insulin?
  1. A Check the patient's name only
  2. B Verify blood glucose only after administration
  3. C Verify insulin type, dose, and timing with a second licensed nurse per facility policy — insulin is a high-alert medication; double-check the type (Regular, NPH, Glargine, etc.), dose in units, and timing (before meal, at bedtime) to prevent dosing errors
  4. D Check the meal tray is at the bedside

Explanation

INSULIN DOUBLE-CHECK is a safety standard in most facilities because insulin errors are common and dangerous. What to verify: TYPE — insulin types look similar but have vastly different durations and onset times; NPH and Regular insulin are often confused; Lantus (glargine) is a 24-hour insulin that looks like regular but gives fatal hypoglycemia if given when Regular was intended; DOSE — insulin is measured in UNITS, not mL; conversion errors happen; TIMING — Regular insulin 30-60 minutes before meals; lispro/aspart immediately before meals; Lantus once daily at bedtime; BLOOD GLUCOSE — check before administering and hold if below the parameter (typically hold if glucose below 70 mg/dL); TWO-NURSE VERIFICATION — per facility policy, most high-alert insulin doses require two licensed nurses to independently verify before administration.
Source: NCLEX-PN, Insulin Safety Double-Check

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11. A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is at risk for aspiration. What positioning reduces aspiration risk during feeding?
  1. A Upright (90 degrees or highest tolerated) during and for 30-60 minutes after meals; thickened liquids if ordered; small bites; slow pace; no talking during swallowing
  2. B Right side-lying during meals only
  3. C Supine (flat)
  4. D Trendelenburg (head down)

Explanation

ASPIRATION PRECAUTIONS for dysphagic patients:

Positioning: HOB at 90 degrees (or highest angle tolerated) during all oral intake and for 30-60 minutes after meals — gravity helps move food toward the stomach.

Thickened liquids: Per speech-language pathology recommendation, liquids may need to be thickened to honey or nectar consistency to prevent aspiration.

Texture-modified diet: Soft, chopped, or pureed foods as recommended.

Feeding technique: Small amounts at a time; slow pace; ensure each swallow is complete before the next bite; no talking while swallowing.

Oral hygiene: Keep mouth clean — oral bacteria in aspirated material cause aspiration pneumonia.

Suction: Suction equipment at bedside for patients at high risk.

Positioning never: Never feed a patient flat in bed — highest aspiration risk position. Most aspiration pneumonia cases involve nocturnal aspiration during sleep — head-of-bed elevation even at night (30 degrees minimum) reduces this risk.

Source: NCLEX-PN, Aspiration Precautions

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12. The nurse is preparing to perform venipuncture on a patient. Which action is done LAST in the preparation sequence?
  1. A Cleanse the site with alcohol and let it dry
  2. B Don gloves
  3. C Apply the tourniquet
  4. D Select the vein site

Explanation

Venipuncture preparation sequence: (1) Explain the procedure to the patient; (2) Gather supplies; (3) Position the arm; (4) APPLY TOURNIQUET (3-4 inches above proposed site); (5) SELECT the vein (palpate for resilience, direction); (6) RELEASE TOURNIQUET temporarily if taking more than 1 minute; (7) DON GLOVES (must be on before skin contact for blood exposure risk); (8) REAPPLY TOURNIQUET; (9) CLEANSE SITE with alcohol swab, using friction, for 30 seconds; (10) LET DRY (30 seconds — wet alcohol increases infection risk and stings); (11) PERFORM venipuncture. The key exam point: gloves go on BEFORE cleansing, not after. Cleansing a site with bare hands violates blood exposure precautions. Some questions ask which step is last — letting the alcohol dry completely is the final prep step before puncture.

Source: NCLEX-PN, Venipuncture Preparation Sequence

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13. After removing gloves during patient care, the nurse should perform hand hygiene. What is the correct duration for alcohol-based hand rub?
  1. A 20-30 seconds (rub until hands are dry — covers all surfaces: palm, back, fingers, fingernails, between fingers)
  2. B 5 seconds
  3. C 2 minutes
  4. D Only required when hands are visibly soiled

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand rub technique: Apply adequate amount (follow product instructions) to cover all hand surfaces; rub palm to palm; right palm over left dorsum with interlaced fingers; palm to palm with fingers interlaced; backs of fingers to opposing palms; rotational rubbing of thumbs; rotational rubbing of fingertips in opposite palm; continue until hands are COMPLETELY DRY — this ensures adequate contact time (typically 20-30 seconds).

Soap and water technique: Wet hands; apply soap; scrub minimum 20 seconds (the 'Happy Birthday' song twice); rinse; dry with single-use paper towel; use towel to turn off faucet.

When to use soap and water: When hands are visibly soiled; before eating; after using the restroom; after caring for C. diff patients (alcohol is ineffective against spores); after norovirus exposure. ABHR is preferred for most routine hand hygiene because it's more effective, faster, and causes less skin damage.

Source: NCLEX-PN, Hand Hygiene Duration

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14. A nurse is preparing an IM injection. The medication is labelled '100 mg/2 mL'. The ordered dose is 75 mg. How many mL should the nurse draw up?
  1. A 3 mL
  2. B 0.75 mL
  3. C 2 mL
  4. D 1.5 mL

Explanation

Medication calculation: Use the formula (Desired ÷ Have) × Volume: Desired: 75 mg. Have: 100 mg. Volume: 2 mL. Calculation: (75 ÷ 100) × 2 = 0.75 × 2 = 1.5 mL.

Verify with dimensional analysis: 75 mg × (2 mL / 100 mg) = 150/100 mL = 1.5 mL.

Nursing check: 1.5 mL is within the acceptable range for IM injection (typically up to 3 mL for large muscles, up to 1 mL for deltoid).

After calculating: Draw up 1.5 mL; visually verify the volume against the syringe markings; check the medication label a third time before injecting. Always show your calculation work on paper, especially for high-alert medications — a calculation error with insulin or heparin can be fatal.

Source: NCLEX-PN, IM Injection Calculation

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15. A nurse is completing a hand-off report for a patient going to surgery. Which framework is most effective for structured verbal reporting?
  1. A Only the most recent vital signs
  2. B SBAR — Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation — provides a standardised structure that prevents omissions and is understood by all healthcare providers
  3. C Alphabetical order of problems
  4. D A narrative format chosen by the nurse

Explanation

SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) is the Joint Commission-recommended and nationally standardised format for healthcare communication, especially hand-offs.

Situation: Who the patient is, the immediate issue or reason for the communication ('Mr. Jones, Room 412, 68-year-old, is being transferred to the OR for laparoscopic cholecystectomy').

Background: Relevant history, allergies, current medications, medical history.

Assessment: Current vital signs, LOC, pain level, IV access, IV fluids running, bowel status, completed preoperative checklist.

Recommendation: What action is needed, anything the receiving team should monitor, any pending orders or concerns. SBAR reduces communication errors — studies show it reduces adverse events by up to 30% when consistently used. The pre-surgical hand-off specifically should include: identification, procedure, surgical site marked, allergies, current status, pending labs or orders, and patient's own understanding of the planned procedure.

Source: NCLEX-PN, SBAR Hand-Off Communication

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16. A client with acute confusion (delirium) is trying to get out of bed and has multiple IV lines and a Foley catheter. After attempting re-orientation and distraction, the nurse is considering restraints. What is the correct process?
  1. A Exhaust all least-restrictive alternatives first; obtain a physician's order (required in all states); use the least restrictive restraint appropriate; reassess every 2 hours; provide range of motion, hydration, and skin checks; re-evaluate the need at least every 24 hours
  2. B Any nurse can apply any type of restraint without an order
  3. C Apply soft wrist restraints and check in 8 hours
  4. D Apply restraints whenever a confused client tries to move

Explanation

RESTRAINT USE — REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS:

Last resort: Restraints must be used only after less-restrictive alternatives fail (redirection, re-orientation, family presence, positioning, medication review, activity).

Physician order required: No nurse may initiate restraints without an order (except in emergency to protect from immediate harm — then get retroactive order within 1 hour).

Order expiration: Most states require new orders every 24 hours; TJC requires specific restraint re-evaluation every 24 hours.

Monitoring: Every 2 hours — circulation checks (pulses, sensation, warmth distal to restraint); skin integrity; position changes; offer fluids; provide ROM.

Documentation: Rationale; alternatives tried; type of restraint; client/family education; reassessment.

Prohibited: Restraints as convenience (staffing shortages); punishment; restraints that restrict breathing.

Legal/regulatory: CMS Conditions of Participation regulate restraint use in Medicare/Medicaid facilities; violations carry serious penalties.

Pn scope: Apply and monitor ordered restraints; exhaust alternatives; document; notify RN of any adverse findings.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Restraints, Process and Legal Requirements

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17. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which PPE is required when entering the room?
  1. A N95 respirator (or higher) — TB requires AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS; standard surgical masks do not filter the small droplet nuclei that carry Mycobacterium tuberculosis; the room must be under negative pressure (air flows in, not out); the door must remain closed
  2. B Standard surgical mask and gown
  3. C N95 plus full face shield at all times
  4. D Only gloves — TB is bloodborne

Explanation

TUBERCULOSIS — AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS: TB spreads via AIRBORNE transmission — tiny droplet nuclei (<5 microns) that remain suspended in air for hours;

Required PPE: N95 respirator (minimum) — must be properly fit-tested for the individual nurse; surgical masks do NOT provide adequate filtration.

Negative pressure room: Air flows INTO the room from the hallway (negative pressure relative to corridor); exhaust air goes outside or through HEPA filtration; door kept CLOSED.

Surgical mask on patient: TB patients wear a surgical mask when transported outside their negative pressure room (to contain droplet nuclei they produce).

Additional precautions: Gown and gloves if contact with respiratory secretions.

Related airborne pathogens: Measles, varicella (chickenpox), disseminated herpes zoster — all require N95 and negative pressure.

Remember: AIRBORNE → N95 + negative pressure room; DROPLET → surgical mask + standard room; CONTACT → gown + gloves.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Airborne Precautions, Tuberculosis PPE

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18. A client receiving a blood transfusion reports sudden onset of lower back pain, chills, and feeling flushed 15 minutes into the transfusion. What is the FIRST nursing action?
  1. A Stop the transfusion immediately — these symptoms indicate a potential acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (ABO incompatibility), which is life-threatening; stopping the transfusion is the absolute first action; do not remove the IV
  2. B Slow the transfusion rate
  3. C Administer diphenhydramine and continue
  4. D Call the blood bank first

Explanation

ACUTE HAEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION (AHTR):

Mechanism: ABO incompatibility — transfused red cells are destroyed by recipient's antibodies; severe inflammatory cascade.

Symptoms: Lower back pain (classic — renal pain from haemoglobinuria); fever/chills; flushing; hypotension; haematuria.

Life-threatening: Can cause acute renal failure, DIC, shock, and death.

Immediate response: STOP the transfusion FIRST — every additional millilitre of incompatible blood worsens the reaction; keep IV line patent (NS); notify RN and blood bank immediately; vital signs; obtain urine specimen; keep blood bag and tubing for blood bank analysis; return blood unit to blood bank; anticipate: IV fluids (maintain renal perfusion); diuretics; vasopressors if needed; CONTRAST WITH FEBRILE NON-HAEMOLYTIC REACTION: Just fever and chills without back pain/haematuria — less serious.

Compare with allergic: Urticaria/hives — slow or stop transfusion, give diphenhydramine, may restart.

Anaphylaxis: Airway symptoms — stop permanently, epinephrine.

Key: ANY symptomatic blood reaction = STOP transfusion FIRST.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Blood Transfusion, Haemolytic Reaction Response

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19. A nurse is preparing to administer an unfamiliar IV medication. The pharmacy has provided the drug but the nurse is uncertain about the safe administration rate. What is the correct action?
  1. A Administer it at any rate since it came from the pharmacy
  2. B Look up the drug in a nursing drug reference or call the pharmacy to confirm the safe infusion rate before administration — never administer an IV medication at an unknown rate; incorrect IV push rates are a leading cause of preventable adverse events
  3. C Administer it slowly just to be safe
  4. D Ask a colleague to guess the rate

Explanation

Safe IV medication administration:

Four rights for IV medications: Right drug, right dose, right patient, right time PLUS right rate for IV medications.

Safe IV rates: Critically important — many IV drugs must be administered over a specified time to prevent adverse effects; too fast = cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension, CNS toxicity.

Specific examples: Vancomycin: minimum 60 min for 1g (Red Man Syndrome if too fast); potassium IV: maximum 10-20 mEq/hr peripheral; IV calcium: slowly — cardiac arrest risk if rapid push; morphine IV push: typically over 4-5 minutes; furosemide IV: over 1-2 minutes; phenytoin: ≤50 mg/min.

Resources: Drug handbook (keep one at the bedside); clinical pharmacist (available by phone 24/7 in most hospitals); package insert; facility infusion guideline.

Never: Guess; ask a non-pharmacist non-prescriber for dosing guidance; rely on memory alone for unfamiliar medications.

Pn scope: Know your resources; it is SAFE PRACTICE to call pharmacy — not a sign of weakness.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Medication Safety, Unknown IV Rate

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20. Which activity requires the nurse to perform hand hygiene?
  1. A Only before invasive procedures
  2. B Before and after every patient contact, before and after using gloves, after contact with bodily fluids, before a clean/aseptic procedure, after touching patient surroundings even without touching the patient — hand hygiene is required even after removing gloves
  3. C Only when gloves are not used
  4. D Only at the start and end of the shift

Explanation

Who 5 moments of hand hygiene: (1) BEFORE touching the patient; (2) BEFORE a clean/aseptic procedure; (3) AFTER bodily fluid exposure risk; (4) AFTER touching the patient; (5) AFTER touching patient surroundings.

Key points: Hand hygiene AFTER GLOVE REMOVAL — gloves have micro-tears; hands can be contaminated during glove removal; gloves do NOT replace hand hygiene; ALCOHOL-BASED HAND RUB (ABHR): Preferred for most situations — 20-30 second application, rub until dry; MORE EFFECTIVE than soap for most pathogens.

Soap and water required: C. difficile (ABHR does not kill spores); when hands are visibly soiled; after using the toilet; before eating.

Duration: Soap and water = 40-60 seconds; ABHR = 20-30 seconds.

Compliance: Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection control measure; studies show 30-40% compliance among healthcare workers without systematic reminders — compliance saves lives.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Hand Hygiene, WHO 5 Moments

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21. A nurse arrives to administer 8 AM medications and cannot locate a client who was ambulatory and cognitively intact. After a quick room search, the nurse finds the bed empty and the client not in the bathroom. What is the first action?
  1. A Search the immediate unit area, check the visitor lounge and common areas; if not found within a few minutes, notify the charge nurse and implement the facility's elopement/missing patient protocol — this is a safety emergency
  2. B Call the police immediately
  3. C Call the family before searching further
  4. D Document that the client is missing and wait for their return

Explanation

Patient elopement/missing patient:

Definition: Elopement = patient leaves a healthcare facility without medical authorisation.

Risk assessment: Patients at risk: confused/demented; psychiatric patients; patients who have expressed desire to leave; impulsive or cognitively impaired patients.

Immediate response sequence: Brief immediate search of room, bathroom, hallways; call to charge nurse/supervisor to activate protocol (this takes <2 minutes while you're searching); facility-wide search initiated; security notified; depending on patient risk: police notified; family notified.

Documentation: Time last seen; circumstances; actions taken.

Prevention: Elopement risk assessment on admission; wander guards (door alarms for dementia patients); check-in procedures; monitoring high-risk patients.

Regulatory: Elopement injuries and deaths are sentinel events requiring immediate investigation and root cause analysis.

Never: Wait and hope the patient returns — every minute increases risk of harm to a confused or medically fragile patient who has left the facility.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Patient Safety, Elopement/Missing Patient Protocol

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22. A client is newly diagnosed with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) in a wound. What precautions are required?
  1. A Contact precautions — gown and gloves upon entering the room; private room preferred; dedicated or single-use equipment (stethoscope, blood pressure cuff); hand hygiene with soap and water or ABHR before and after contact
  2. B Droplet precautions with surgical mask
  3. C Standard precautions only
  4. D Airborne precautions with N95 mask

Explanation

MRSA — CONTACT PRECAUTIONS:

Transmission: Direct contact (touch) with infected wounds, skin, or colonised areas; indirect contact (contaminated surfaces and equipment); MRSA DOES NOT require special respiratory precautions (unless the patient has pneumonia with productive cough — then droplet may be added for respiratory secretion management, per facility protocol).

Contact precautions:

PPE: Gown + gloves upon ROOM ENTRY (not just when touching patient — MRSA contamination on all surfaces in the room); Private room or cohorted with another MRSA patient; Dedicated equipment stays in the room.

Hand hygiene: On entry and exit from the room.

Education: Family and visitors need teaching.

Decolonisation: In some cases, mupirocin nasal ointment and chlorhexidine washes ordered to reduce MRSA colonisation.

Signage: Contact precautions sign outside the door; document in medical record; notify receiving facility on transfer.

Removal of precautions: Per facility protocol; typically requires negative culture results; some patients remain MRSA-colonised indefinitely.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Infection Control, MRSA Contact Precautions

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23. Which assessment finding is most consistent with internal haemorrhage following abdominal surgery?
  1. A Rising blood pressure with decreasing heart rate
  2. B Bradycardia and hypertension
  3. C Blood pressure 140/90, HR 68
  4. D Decreasing blood pressure AND increasing heart rate — early signs of haemorrhage: tachycardia as the body compensates for volume loss; narrowing pulse pressure; restlessness and anxiety; then hypotension develops as compensatory mechanisms fail

Explanation

HAEMORRHAGE RECOGNITION — HAEMODYNAMIC RESPONSE: EARLY COMPENSATED HAEMORRHAGE (Class I-II, up to 1,500 mL blood loss): Heart rate INCREASES (tachycardia) — compensatory sympathetic response; Blood pressure may be maintained or slightly decreased; Anxiety, restlessness; Skin pallor, cool, diaphoretic; LATE DECOMPENSATED HAEMORRHAGE (Class III-IV, >1,500 mL): Blood pressure DROPS — compensatory mechanisms overwhelmed; Severe tachycardia (>120-140); Confusion, lethargy; Oliguria;

Classic early warning pattern: Rising HR + falling BP = haemorrhage until proven otherwise; CUSHING'S TRIAD: Rising BP + dropping HR + irregular respirations = INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE — not haemorrhage.

Post-surgical monitoring: Vital signs every 15 min × 4, then every 30 min × 4, then hourly — catch early deterioration; Assess incision/drain output; Assess urine output.

Pn scope: Monitor vital signs; report early warning signs; do not wait for obvious hypotension before notifying RN.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Post-op Safety, Internal Haemorrhage Recognition

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24. A nurse discovers a medication error — administered the wrong dose of a non-critical medication to a stable patient. The patient appears unaffected. What must the nurse do?
  1. A Tell only the charge nurse and ask them to handle it
  2. B Assess the patient for adverse effects; notify the RN and physician about the error; document the medication administered (what was given) objectively in the medical record; complete an incident report (separately from the medical record) — medication errors must be reported regardless of apparent outcome
  3. C Document the correct dose as ordered and move on
  4. D Say nothing since no harm occurred

Explanation

Medication error reporting:

Moral and legal obligation: All medication errors must be reported, regardless of apparent harm — this is a patient safety, legal, and regulatory requirement.

Immediate response: Assess patient for signs of adverse effects (vital signs, symptoms); report to RN and physician immediately with specific information (what was given, what was ordered, when, patient status).

Documentation: Document WHAT WAS ACTUALLY ADMINISTERED in the medical record — falsifying to show the correct dose is fraud; the incident report is separate from the medical record.

Incident report: NOT part of the medical record in most jurisdictions; used for quality improvement; typically not discoverable in litigation; DO NOT reference the incident report in the medical record.

Consequences of not reporting: The physician may unknowingly give subsequent orders based on the assumed correct medication; harm could result later; the nurse faces discipline and potential criminal charges for concealment.

Just culture: Modern healthcare uses a 'just culture' model — transparent reporting without automatic punishment for honest errors; learning-focused rather than blame-focused.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Safety, Medication Error Reporting

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25. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which action is MOST important to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
  1. A Rinse the catheter with tap water before insertion
  2. B Use sterile technique only for the first hour
  3. C Change the catheter every 24 hours routinely
  4. D Maintain strict sterile technique throughout the insertion procedure and maintain a closed drainage system — CAUTIs are a major preventable healthcare-associated infection; the majority are preventable with proper insertion technique and maintenance

Explanation

Cauti prevention bundle:

Indications: Only insert when medically necessary — review daily whether continued catheterisation is needed.

Insertion technique:

Sterile: sterile gloves, draping, catheter; cleanse with antiseptic; insert without contamination.

Closed drainage: Never disconnect catheter from drainage bag (without specific indication); use a preconnected closed system.

Drainage bag management: Keep below bladder level at all times; empty regularly (never allow to fill completely); do not place on floor; don't kink or obstruct tubing.

Care and maintenance: Daily periurethral cleansing (soap and water).

Avoid: Irrigation unless ordered for obstruction; routine catheter changes on schedule (change only when indicated: obstruction, soiled, malfunction).

Documentation: Date of insertion; indication; daily reassessment of continued need.

Impact: CAUTIs account for ~30% of all healthcare-associated infections; each CAUTI adds ~$600-700 in hospital costs and increases patient morbidity; many are considered 'never events' when proper protocols are followed.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Infection Control, CAUTI Prevention

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26. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and notices the prescription reads 'digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily.' The available supply is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse give?
  1. A 1 tablet
  2. B 4 tablets
  3. C 2 tablets — 0.25 mg ÷ 0.125 mg per tablet = 2 tablets
  4. D Half a tablet

Explanation

Dosage calculation: Desired dose ÷ Available dose per unit = number of units. 0.25 mg (desired) ÷ 0.125 mg (per tablet) = 2 tablets.

Verification: 2 tablets × 0.125 mg = 0.25 mg ✓.

Medication safety checks: Always verify the calculation; if a calculation results in an unusual number of tablets (more than 2-3, or fractions of unscored tablets), double-check — it may signal an error; digoxin is a HIGH-ALERT medication — verify dose, check apical pulse before administration (hold if < 60 bpm), watch for toxicity; THE 'RIGHTS' of medication administration: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, plus right reason, right response, right to refuse; calculation errors are a leading cause of medication errors — when in doubt, have a second nurse verify, especially for high-alert medications and pediatric doses.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Dosage Calculation

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27. A client is admitted with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precaution is required?
  1. A Standard precautions only
  2. B Airborne precautions — TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; requires a negative-pressure room and an N95 respirator (fit-tested) for anyone entering
  3. C Contact precautions
  4. D Droplet precautions

Explanation

TUBERCULOSIS — AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS: TB spreads via tiny airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in air and travel on air currents.

Requirements: AIIR (Airborne Infection Isolation Room) — negative pressure relative to the hallway (air flows INTO the room, not out); minimum 6-12 air exchanges per hour; air exhausted outside or through HEPA filtration; N95 RESPIRATOR (fit-tested) or PAPR for anyone entering — a regular surgical mask is NOT sufficient for airborne precautions; keep the door closed; if the client must leave the room, they wear a surgical mask (to contain their droplets); OTHER AIRBORNE DISEASES (mnemonic 'My Chicken Hez TB'): Measles, Chickenpox (varicella), Herpes zoster (disseminated), TB.

Contrast: Droplet (flu, pertussis, meningitis) = surgical mask, larger droplets that don't travel far; Contact (C. diff, MRSA) = gown and gloves; LPN role: implement airborne precautions, wear N95, ensure negative-pressure room, educate visitors.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Airborne Precautions, TB

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28. A nurse finds a client on the floor next to the bed. After ensuring the client's immediate safety and assessing for injury, what is the next priority action?
  1. A Notify the RN and provider, then document the objective findings in the medical record; the incident report is completed separately and is NOT referenced in the chart
  2. B Complete an incident report immediately
  3. C Call the family first
  4. D Move the client back to bed quickly

Explanation

Post-fall protocol:

Sequence: (1) Ensure immediate safety; assess for injury (don't move if spinal injury suspected); assess level of consciousness, vital signs, pain, range of motion, any deformity; (2) Provide necessary care/stabilization; (3) Notify the RN and provider; (4) Document OBJECTIVE findings in the medical record (what you found, the client's condition, actions taken, who was notified) — factually, without speculation about cause or blame; (5) Complete an INCIDENT REPORT (occurrence/variance report) separately — this is an internal quality/risk management document.

Key point: The incident report is NOT part of the medical record and should NOT be referenced in the chart ('incident report completed' should NOT be charted) — they are kept separate for legal reasons; documentation should be factual and objective.

Fall assessment: Reassess fall risk; implement additional precautions; LPN role: ensure safety, assess, notify, document objectively, complete incident report per facility policy.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Post-Fall Protocol and Documentation

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29. What is the correct sequence for DONNING (putting on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A Goggles, gloves, gown, mask
  2. B Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
  3. C Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
  4. D Gown, mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, gloves — gown first, gloves last

Explanation

PPE DONNING SEQUENCE (putting ON): (1) GOWN first; (2) MASK or respirator; (3) GOGGLES or face shield; (4) GLOVES last (gloves go over the gown cuffs);

Mnemonic: 'Gown, mask, goggles, gloves'; DOFFING SEQUENCE (taking OFF) — reverse and based on most contaminated first: (1) GLOVES first (most contaminated); (2) GOGGLES/face shield; (3) GOWN; (4) MASK/respirator last (remove after leaving the room for respirators).

Why order matters: Donning order ensures proper coverage and that gloves seal the gown; doffing order removes the most contaminated items first while preventing self-contamination.

Hand hygiene: Perform before donning and after doffing (and during doffing if hands become contaminated); the doffing sequence is more commonly tested because errors during removal are the highest contamination risk; LPN role: don and doff PPE correctly to prevent transmission and self-contamination.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — PPE Donning Sequence

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30. A client with a documented latex allergy is scheduled for a procedure. What is the priority nursing action?
  1. A Keep epinephrine at the bedside but use regular supplies
  2. B Ensure a latex-free environment — use latex-free gloves, equipment, and supplies; post latex allergy alerts; schedule the client as the first case of the day when possible (less airborne latex)
  3. C Administer an antihistamine before the procedure
  4. D Have the client sign a waiver

Explanation

LATEX ALLERGY MANAGEMENT — PREVENTION IS PRIORITY: Create a LATEX-FREE ENVIRONMENT: latex-free gloves (nitrile, vinyl); latex-free equipment (BP cuffs, tourniquets, IV tubing, catheters, syringes); check all supplies for latex content;

Latex allergy alerts: Allergy band, chart flag, signage on the door.

Scheduling: First case of the day reduces airborne latex particles that accumulate from prior cases.

Cross-reactivity: Latex-allergic patients may react to certain foods (banana, avocado, kiwi, chestnut — 'latex-fruit syndrome').

Reaction severity: Ranges from contact dermatitis to anaphylaxis; have emergency equipment and epinephrine available; PREVENTION over reaction: The priority is preventing exposure, not just being ready to treat a reaction.

Healthcare workers: At higher risk for developing latex allergy due to frequent exposure; LPN role: verify allergy, ensure latex-free supplies, post alerts, advocate for first-case scheduling, monitor for reaction.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Latex Allergy Prevention

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31. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxygen therapy. Which safety measure is most important in the client's room?
  1. A Keep humidity high
  2. B Dim the lights
  3. C No smoking and no open flames or sources of ignition — oxygen supports combustion; remove all ignition sources, post 'Oxygen in Use' signs, and avoid flammable materials
  4. D Keep the room cool

Explanation

OXYGEN SAFETY — FIRE PREVENTION: Oxygen does not burn itself but VIGOROUSLY SUPPORTS COMBUSTION — fires burn hotter and faster in an oxygen-enriched environment.

Safety measures: NO SMOKING (post 'Oxygen in Use — No Smoking' signs); no open flames, candles, matches, lighters; avoid electrical equipment that could spark; no petroleum-based products (petroleum jelly, oil) near oxygen — use water-based lubricants; avoid wool/synthetic fabrics that generate static; ensure proper grounding of electrical equipment; keep oxygen sources away from heat; SECURE oxygen cylinders (can become projectiles if the valve breaks).

Home oxygen: Educate about the same precautions; keep oxygen away from stoves, heaters, and gas appliances.

Additional: Monitor for oxygen toxicity with high concentrations over time; for COPD patients, titrate carefully (target SpO2 88-92%); LPN role: ensure a safe oxygen environment, post warnings, educate the client and visitors, remove ignition sources.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Oxygen Safety

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32. When should a nurse perform hand hygiene according to the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene'?
  1. A Only after touching a client
  2. B Before touching a client, before a clean/aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a client, and after touching the client's surroundings
  3. C Once at the start of each shift
  4. D Only when hands are visibly soiled

Explanation

Who five moments for hand hygiene: (1) BEFORE touching a client; (2) BEFORE a clean/aseptic procedure; (3) AFTER body fluid exposure risk; (4) AFTER touching a client; (5) AFTER touching client surroundings (even without touching the client).

Hand hygiene method: Alcohol-based hand rub for routine decontamination (faster, more effective for most organisms, less drying); SOAP AND WATER when hands are visibly soiled, after using the restroom, and for spore-forming organisms (C. diff, anthrax — alcohol doesn't kill spores).

Technique: Alcohol rub — apply, rub all surfaces until dry (15-30 sec); Soap and water — wet, lather, scrub all surfaces 20+ seconds, rinse, dry, turn off faucet with towel.

Importance: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections; LPN role: perform hand hygiene at all five moments, use the correct method, model and promote compliance.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — WHO Five Moments Hand Hygiene

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33. A nurse is reconciling a client's medications and finds the client is taking warfarin and was just prescribed aspirin by a different provider. What is the priority action?
  1. A Hold both medications indefinitely
  2. B Tell the client to choose which one to take
  3. C Recognize the potential interaction (both increase bleeding risk) and notify the provider before administering — medication reconciliation is a key safety step to catch dangerous interactions and duplications
  4. D Administer both medications as prescribed

Explanation

MEDICATION RECONCILIATION — CATCHING INTERACTIONS: Warfarin (anticoagulant) + aspirin (antiplatelet) = significantly increased bleeding risk; this combination requires provider awareness and may be intentional (some cardiac conditions) or an oversight from separate prescribers.

Priority: Recognize the interaction; notify the provider to confirm intent before administering; do not simply give both without clarification.

Medication reconciliation: Comparing the client's current medications across transitions of care (admission, transfer, discharge) to identify and resolve discrepancies — duplications, omissions, interactions, dosing errors; a National Patient Safety Goal; HIGH-RISK INTERACTIONS to know: anticoagulant + antiplatelet (bleeding); ACE inhibitor + potassium (hyperkalemia); multiple QT-prolonging drugs (dysrhythmia); MAOIs + many drugs/foods.

Involve: pharmacist for complex reconciliation.

Safety culture: Catching these is exactly why reconciliation exists; LPN role: participate in reconciliation, recognize potential interactions, notify the provider, advocate for client safety.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Medication Reconciliation and Interactions

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34. A nurse is about to administer a medication via a client's nasogastric (NG) tube. What is the priority safety check before administration?
  1. A Warm the medication
  2. B Crush all medications together
  3. C Verify NG tube placement (check tube marking, aspirate gastric contents and check pH, confirm proper position) before administering anything through the tube to prevent instillation into the lungs
  4. D Flush with 200 mL of water

Explanation

NG TUBE MEDICATION SAFETY — VERIFY PLACEMENT: Before instilling ANY medication or feeding through an NG tube, VERIFY PLACEMENT to ensure the tube is in the stomach, not the lungs (a dislodged tube in the airway could cause aspiration of medication/feeding into the lungs — potentially fatal).

Verification methods: Check the external tube length marking against the documented baseline; aspirate gastric contents and check pH (gastric pH typically ≤ 5); X-ray is the gold standard for initial placement; observe aspirate characteristics; the auscultation 'whoosh' test alone is NOT reliable; MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION via NG: Verify placement; check tube patency; use liquid forms when available; crush only compatible tablets (never crush enteric-coated or extended-release); administer medications separately, flushing between each (prevents interactions and clogging); flush with water before and after (typically 15-30 mL adult); keep head of bed elevated; LPN role: verify placement before every use, administer correctly, flush appropriately, monitor for complications.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — NG Tube Placement Verification

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35. A client is admitted with a seizure disorder. Which items should be readily available at the bedside for seizure precautions?
  1. A Padded tongue blade and restraints
  2. B Suction equipment and oxygen — to maintain a patent airway during and after a seizure; the bed should be in low position with side rails padded
  3. C Ice packs
  4. D A bite block to insert during the seizure

Explanation

Seizure precautions:

Bedside equipment: Suction equipment (to clear secretions and maintain airway); oxygen (for post-ictal hypoxia); padded side rails; bed in LOW position.

During a seizure: Protect from injury — do NOT restrain; do NOT put anything in the mouth (the old 'bite block/tongue blade' teaching is WRONG and dangerous — can break teeth, obstruct airway, injure the mouth); turn the client to the side (recovery position) to prevent aspiration if possible; protect the head (cushion); loosen tight clothing; note time, duration, and characteristics of the seizure; clear the area of hazards; AFTER (post-ictal): Maintain airway, suction if needed, provide oxygen, reorient gently, allow rest, assess for injury.

Document: Onset, duration, type of movements, level of consciousness, incontinence, post-ictal state.

Never: insert objects in the mouth, restrain the client, leave the client alone.

Call for help: Notify RN/provider; status epilepticus (continuous/repeated seizures) is an emergency; LPN role: implement precautions, protect during seizure, monitor, document, never restrain or insert objects.

Source: NCLEX-PN Safe Care — Seizure Precautions

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