NCLEX · RN: Health Promotion and Maintenance · Topic Study Guide

Prenatal and Newborn Care: Practice Questions & Explanations

14 RN: Health Promotion and Maintenance questions on prenatal and newborn care, each with a worked explanation citing the source handbook.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-RN Test Plan and public-domain nursing reference materials.

Why this topic matters

Prenatal and newborn questions cover antepartum assessment and teaching, warning signs in pregnancy, labour and delivery basics, newborn assessment (Apgar, reflexes, vital signs) and postpartum care.

Below are every prenatal and newborn care question in our Rn Health Promotion bank. Read each question, try to answer before reading the explanation, and use the source citations to look up anything you want to verify.

1. What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9)?
  1. A 25-35 pounds total
  2. B 50-60 pounds
  3. C No weight gain
  4. D 5-10 pounds

Explanation

Recommended pregnancy weight gain depends on pre-pregnancy BMI (Institute of Medicine guidelines): (1) Underweight (BMI <18.5): 28-40 pounds; (2) Normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9): 25-35 pounds; (3) Overweight (BMI 25-29.9): 15-25 pounds; (4) Obese (BMI ≥30): 11-20 pounds. Twin pregnancies: higher recommendations (37-54 pounds for normal BMI). Weight gain distribution: ~1-5 pounds in first trimester; ~1 pound per week in second and third trimesters. Weight gain components: baby (~7-8 lbs), placenta (~1-2 lbs), amniotic fluid (~2 lbs), uterus (~2 lbs), breast tissue (~1-3 lbs), blood volume (~3-4 lbs), fat stores (~5-9 lbs), increased fluid (~2-3 lbs). Excessive gain risks: gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, macrosomia, cesarean delivery, postpartum weight retention. Inadequate gain risks: preterm birth, low birth weight, failure to thrive. Nutrition counseling: ~340 additional calories/day in second trimester, ~450 in third; balanced diet emphasizing protein, calcium, iron, folate; prenatal vitamins; avoiding alcohol, smoking, recreational drugs, certain fish (high mercury), unpasteurized products. Track weight at each prenatal visit; address concerning patterns promptly.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Prenatal — Weight Gain Guidelines

Open this question's own page →

2. What is the APGAR score and when is it assessed?
  1. A A standardized assessment of newborn well-being performed at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth, scoring 0-2 points each in five categories (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respirations) for a total of 0-10
  2. B A pregnancy test
  3. C A diabetes screening
  4. D A nutritional assessment

Explanation

APGAR (developed by Virginia Apgar in 1952) is the standard newborn assessment at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Five categories scored 0-2 each: A — Appearance (color): 0 = blue/pale all over, 1 = pink body with blue extremities (acrocyanosis), 2 = pink all over; P — Pulse (heart rate): 0 = absent, 1 = <100 bpm, 2 = ≥100 bpm; G — Grimace (reflex irritability to stimulation): 0 = no response, 1 = grimace/weak cry, 2 = vigorous cry; A — Activity (muscle tone): 0 = limp, 1 = some flexion, 2 = active movement; R — Respirations: 0 = absent, 1 = slow/irregular, 2 = good crying. Total: 0-10. Interpretation: 7-10 normal; 4-6 moderate distress, may need stimulation/oxygen; 0-3 severe distress, immediate resuscitation. The 5-minute score is generally more predictive of outcomes than the 1-minute. Low APGAR at 5 minutes warrants additional 10-minute (and beyond) reassessments. Note: APGAR scores alone do not diagnose birth asphyxia or predict long-term outcomes; they guide immediate care. Most newborns have acrocyanosis (blue hands/feet) in the first hours, normal and not concerning.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Newborn — APGAR

Open this question's own page →

3. What is the recommended infant feeding for the first 6 months of life?
  1. A Cow's milk only
  2. B Exclusive breastfeeding (or iron-fortified infant formula if breastfeeding is not chosen or possible) — no water, juice, or solid foods needed
  3. C Solid foods at 2 months
  4. D Whole milk and cereal

Explanation

AAP recommendation: exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months, then continued breastfeeding with appropriate complementary foods through at least 12 months and longer as mutually desired. WHO recommends continued breastfeeding through 2 years. If breastfeeding is not chosen or possible, iron-fortified infant formula is the alternative. Why exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months: (1) Breast milk provides complete nutrition for that period; (2) Antibodies and immune factors reduce infections; (3) GI tract is developmentally ready for milk but not solids; (4) Reduces allergy and asthma risk; (5) Reduces SIDS risk. NOT recommended before 12 months: cow's milk (insufficient iron, may cause GI bleeding in infants); honey (botulism risk); foods that are choking hazards (whole grapes, nuts, popcorn, hot dogs, raw vegetables). Solid foods are introduced around 6 months when infant shows readiness signs: sits with support, head control, doubled birth weight, shows interest in food, loses tongue-thrust reflex. Iron-rich foods first (iron-fortified cereal, pureed meat) because iron stores deplete around 6 months. Introduce one food at a time, waiting 3-5 days between new foods to identify allergies. By 12 months: solid food primary nutrition, transition to whole milk (after 12 months only).
Source: NCLEX-RN, Infant — Feeding Guidelines

Open this question's own page →

4. What is the recommended prenatal screening for gestational diabetes?
  1. A Glucose Challenge Test (GCT) at 24-28 weeks gestation; if abnormal (typically >140 mg/dL at 1 hour), confirmatory 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
  2. B Daily glucose testing from conception
  3. C Never screened
  4. D Only after birth

Explanation

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) screening: standard one-step or two-step approach. Two-step (US standard): (1) Glucose Challenge Test (GCT) at 24-28 weeks: drink 50g glucose, check blood glucose 1 hour later; cutoff typically 130-140 mg/dL; if abnormal, proceed to confirmatory test; (2) 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT): fasting; drink 100g glucose; check at 1, 2, 3 hours; GDM diagnosed if 2+ values exceed cutoffs (fasting 95, 1hr 180, 2hr 155, 3hr 140 mg/dL by Carpenter-Coustan criteria). Earlier screening (first trimester) for high-risk women: prior GDM, BMI ≥30, family history of T2DM, prior macrosomic baby, ethnic background with high T2DM rates (Hispanic, Black, Native American, Asian, Pacific Islander). Risks of untreated GDM: macrosomia (>4kg) with shoulder dystocia and birth trauma; neonatal hypoglycemia; respiratory distress; long-term: child increased obesity and diabetes risk; mother increased risk of T2DM (50% within 10 years). Management: nutrition therapy (consult dietitian, carb counting), exercise (after physician clearance), self-monitoring (4-7 times daily), insulin if diet/exercise inadequate (oral hypoglycemics increasingly used). Postpartum: 75g 2-hour OGTT at 6-12 weeks to identify those with persistent diabetes.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Prenatal — GDM Screening

Open this question's own page →

5. What is the proper sleep position for infants to reduce SIDS risk?
  1. A On the stomach
  2. B On the side
  3. C Sleeping with parents
  4. D On the back (supine), in a safety-approved crib with firm mattress, no soft objects, blankets, or bumpers in the crib — the 'Back to Sleep' or 'Safe to Sleep' campaign

Explanation

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) — sudden unexplained death of infants <1 year — was reduced by 50%+ through the AAP 'Back to Sleep' campaign (now 'Safe to Sleep'). Recommendations: (1) Supine (back) sleep position for every sleep until age 1 — significantly reduces SIDS risk; the position with strongest evidence; (2) Firm sleep surface — safety-approved crib mattress; no waterbeds, couches, soft surfaces; (3) Bare crib — no blankets, pillows, stuffed animals, bumpers, soft toys, sleep positioners; (4) Room-sharing but not bed-sharing — infant in separate sleep space in parents' room ideally for first 6-12 months; bed-sharing increases SIDS risk; (5) Avoid overheating — light clothing, room temperature 68-72°F; sleep sack instead of blanket; (6) Avoid prenatal smoke exposure and infant smoke exposure; (7) Breastfeed when possible — reduces SIDS risk; (8) Pacifier use at sleep times — reduces SIDS risk (after breastfeeding is established if breastfeeding); (9) Routine immunizations — reduce SIDS risk; (10) Avoid alcohol and drug exposure. Tummy time during awake/supervised periods (not for sleep) is important for development. Side sleeping is NOT a safe alternative — infants can roll to prone. Once infant can roll independently, they can be left in the position they assume but should be placed supine to start.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Newborn — Safe Sleep

Open this question's own page →

6. What are signs of newborn jaundice that require evaluation?
  1. A Yellow skin and sclera; jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours of life, lasting >2 weeks in full-term infants, with serum bilirubin >15 mg/dL, with poor feeding, lethargy, irritability, or fever — requires evaluation; severe cases need phototherapy or exchange transfusion
  2. B Only adult condition
  3. C Mild yellowing in the first week
  4. D Just normal skin variation

Explanation

Neonatal jaundice (hyperbilirubinemia) is common — 60% of full-term and 80% of preterm infants develop visible jaundice. Most cases are physiologic and benign. Pathologic jaundice (warrants evaluation): (1) Onset in first 24 hours of life — suggests hemolysis, sepsis, or other serious cause; (2) Rapidly rising bilirubin (>5 mg/dL/day); (3) Total bilirubin >15 mg/dL in full-term infants (>10 in preterm); (4) Jaundice persisting >2 weeks in full-term, >3 weeks in preterm; (5) Direct (conjugated) bilirubin >2 mg/dL — suggests biliary obstruction or hepatocellular disease; (6) Associated signs: poor feeding, lethargy, irritability, hypotonia, fever, vomiting; (7) Family history of jaundice. Severe untreated jaundice can cause kernicterus — irreversible neurological damage from bilirubin crossing into the brain. Risk factors: prematurity, breastfeeding (more common but typically benign), ABO or Rh incompatibility, hereditary hemolytic disorders (G6PD deficiency, sickle cell), birth trauma with bruising. Assessment: visual inspection (jaundice typically progresses cephalocaudal); serum bilirubin levels; transcutaneous bilirubinometer for screening. Treatment: phototherapy (specific wavelength of light converts bilirubin to excretable form) for moderate levels; exchange transfusion for very high levels or signs of kernicterus. Breastfeeding jaundice: continue breastfeeding, ensure adequate intake. Discharge teaching: parents should observe for worsening jaundice and seek evaluation if concerning.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Newborn — Jaundice

Open this question's own page →

7. A nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks gestation who reports reduced fetal movement today compared to usual. What is the PRIORITY nursing action?
  1. A Have her drink orange juice and recount kicks in a week
  2. B Tell her to come back in two days if it continues
  3. C Reassure her that decreased movement is normal near term
  4. D Immediately notify the provider and initiate fetal monitoring — decreased fetal movement is a potential sign of fetal compromise requiring urgent evaluation

Explanation

DECREASED FETAL MOVEMENT (DFM) is a significant obstetric concern that requires PROMPT assessment. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal wellbeing — the fetus moves in response to stimuli and as a sign of adequate oxygenation.

Normal fetal movement: increases from about 28 weeks; most mothers notice consistent patterns by the third trimester; average 10 movements per 2-hour period (kick counts); fetal sleep cycles of 20-40 minutes (normal periods of less movement).

Significance of decreased movement: DFM can precede fetal death by hours to days; causes include: umbilical cord compression; placental insufficiency; fetal hypoxia; oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid); intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR); fetal anomalies; acute fetal distress; sedating medications taken by mother.

Immediate nursing actions: notify provider/RN IMMEDIATELY — this is not a 'watch and wait' situation at 38 weeks.

Fetal heart rate monitoring: apply external fetal monitor (NST — non-stress test); assess FHR baseline, variability, presence of accelerations.

Position: lateral position (left lateral preferred) to maximize uterine blood flow; SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN may be applied while monitoring.

Provider assessment: physician/midwife will evaluate and may order biophysical profile (BPP) or other assessment. KICK COUNTS (normally taught as preventive): 10 movements in 2 hours is reassuring; if she can't count 10 movements in 2 hours → call provider immediately.

Why not reassure: at term, decreased fetal movement is not 'normal' and always requires evaluation before reassurance can appropriately be given; false reassurance of a genuinely compromised fetus can lead to preventable fetal death.

Source: NCLEX-RN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Antepartum, Fetal Movement

Open this question's own page →

8. A pregnant client at 28 weeks asks about the gestational diabetes screening. What is the standard screening test?
  1. A HbA1c only
  2. B Fasting blood glucose only
  3. C 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT): the client drinks a 50g glucose solution and blood glucose is measured 1 hour later; a result of 130-140 mg/dL or above (threshold varies by institution) requires follow-up with a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for diagnosis
  4. D Fasting insulin level

Explanation

GESTATIONAL DIABETES MELLITUS (GDM) SCREENING:

When: 24-28 weeks gestation for all pregnant women (earlier if high-risk factors: prior GDM, obesity, family history, prior macrosomic infant).

Screening test: 1-hour GCT (Glucose Challenge Test): 50g oral glucose load; no fasting required; glucose drawn 1 hour later.

Threshold: 130 mg/dL (some institutions use 140 mg/dL) — above threshold requires the 3-hour test.

Diagnostic test: 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): fasting glucose + glucose draws at 1, 2, and 3 hours after 100g glucose load; GDM diagnosed if 2 or more values meet/exceed thresholds.

Implications: GDM increases risk of macrosomia, birth complications, neonatal hypoglycemia, and maternal type 2 diabetes later in life; managed with diet, exercise, and insulin or oral hypoglycemics if needed.

Source: NCLEX-RN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Prenatal, GDM Screening

Open this question's own page →

9. What is the most common cause of maternal mortality in the United States in the postpartum period?
  1. A Infection
  2. B Hemorrhage — postpartum hemorrhage (blood loss exceeding 1,000 mL within 24 hours after delivery) is a leading cause of maternal morbidity and mortality; it is largely preventable with active management of the third stage of labor
  3. C Pulmonary embolism
  4. D Preeclampsia

Explanation

POSTPARTUM HEMORRHAGE (PPH) DEFINITION: Blood loss ≥1,000 mL (or any amount with signs of hypovolemia) within 24 hours of delivery. LEADING CAUSES — the 4 Ts: TONE (uterine atony — most common; 70-80% of PPH); TRAUMA (lacerations, uterine rupture, hematoma); TISSUE (retained placenta/products of conception); THROMBIN (coagulopathy).

Risk factors: Multiple gestation, uterine over-distension, prolonged labor, prior PPH, placenta previa.

Prevention: Active Management of Third Stage of Labor (AMTSL) — uterotonic medication (oxytocin) after delivery, controlled cord traction, uterine massage.

Nursing assessment: Fundal firmness every 15 minutes in recovery; pad count; vital signs; skin perfusion.

Treatment: Uterine massage; uterotonics (oxytocin, misoprostol, carboprost); bimanual compression; transfusion if needed; surgical intervention for refractory cases.

Source: NCLEX-RN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Postpartum, Hemorrhage

Open this question's own page →

10. During a newborn assessment at 24 hours of life, the nurse notes the baby has jaundice visible below the umbilicus. How should the nurse prioritise this finding?
  1. A Jaundice below the umbilicus is less serious than facial jaundice
  2. B Jaundice only matters if the baby is visibly orange
  3. C This is a significant finding — jaundice appearing below the umbilicus (zones 3-5) suggests potentially high bilirubin requiring immediate serum bilirubin level measurement and provider notification
  4. D This is expected and normal for all newborns — document and continue

Explanation

NEONATAL JAUNDICE ZONATION (Kramer's Rule): Zone 1 — head and neck: suggests lower bilirubin (<5-6 mg/dL); Zone 2 — to umbilicus: approximately 5-12 mg/dL; Zone 3 — below umbilicus to knees: approximately 8-16 mg/dL; Zone 4 — below knees to ankles: approximately 11-18 mg/dL; Zone 5 — palms and soles: ≥15-20 mg/dL;

Clinical note: Kramer's rule has limitations — dark skin tone makes clinical assessment unreliable; transcutaneous bilirubin (TcB) and serum bilirubin (TSB) are more accurate; SIGNIFICANCE OF ZONE 3+: Jaundice below the umbilicus requires immediate assessment — high bilirubin can cause kernicterus (permanent brain damage) if untreated.

Treatment: Phototherapy is the primary treatment; exchange transfusion for severe cases.

Timing: Jaundice appearing in first 24 hours (pathological) is more serious than jaundice appearing 2-4 days (physiological).

Source: NCLEX-RN HP — Newborn, Neonatal Jaundice Assessment

Open this question's own page →

11. A pregnant client at 10 weeks is found to have HIV. Which medication is most important to initiate immediately?
  1. A Azithromycin prophylaxis
  2. B Aspirin for preeclampsia prevention only
  3. C Antiretroviral therapy (ART) — all pregnant women with HIV should receive ART regardless of CD4 count or viral load; the goal is an undetectable viral load at delivery to reduce perinatal transmission to <1%
  4. D Fluconazole for Candida prevention

Explanation

HIV IN PREGNANCY — NURSING PRIORITY:

Initiate art immediately: All pregnant women with HIV should start antiretroviral therapy regardless of CD4 count; the primary goal is viral suppression to undetectable levels (<20-40 copies/mL) by delivery.

Perinatal transmission: Without ART, transmission risk is 15-45%; with ART achieving undetectable viral load: <1%.

Regimen selection: Three-drug ART combination; avoid efavirenz in first trimester (neural tube defect risk); preferred regimens include dolutegravir-based (with folic acid supplementation).

Infant prophylaxis: Newborn receives ART prophylaxis (usually zidovudine/AZT for 4-6 weeks); breastfeeding: not recommended in resource-rich settings (formula substitution eliminates breastfeeding transmission risk).

Delivery: If viral load >1,000 copies/mL near delivery, caesarean section recommended to reduce transmission; monitoring: viral load at 36 weeks to guide delivery decision.

Source: NCLEX-RN HP — Prenatal Care, HIV in Pregnancy

Open this question's own page →

12. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about preventing neural tube defects. Which supplement is most important?
  1. A Vitamin C
  2. B Vitamin E
  3. C Calcium
  4. D Folic acid (folate)

Explanation

FOLIC ACID (folate) is most important for preventing NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS (such as spina bifida and anencephaly). NCLEX-RN health promotion/prenatal care. Recommendations: women of childbearing age should take about 400 mcg of folic acid daily, and pregnant women typically 600 mcg — IDEALLY STARTING BEFORE CONCEPTION and in early pregnancy, because the neural tube closes within the first 28 days (often before a woman knows she's pregnant). Folate sources: fortified grains, leafy greens, legumes, citrus. Starting folic acid before and during early pregnancy is the key preventive measure. Knowing folic acid prevents neural tube defects (and the timing) is a heavily tested prenatal health-promotion concept.
Source: NCLEX-RN Health Promotion — Folic Acid / Neural Tube Defects

Open this question's own page →

13. What is a general purpose of prenatal health teaching during pregnancy?
  1. A To avoid involving the client in decisions
  2. B To discourage prenatal visits
  3. C To replace medical care entirely
  4. D To promote healthy behaviors during pregnancy, prepare the client for childbirth and newborn care, and support early identification of concerns

Explanation

Prenatal health teaching during pregnancy generally aims to promote healthy behaviors (such as appropriate nutrition, activity, and avoidance of harmful substances), prepare the client for childbirth and newborn care, encourage attendance at prenatal visits, and support early identification and management of concerns. It complements, rather than replaces, medical care, and it actively involves the client in decisions about their care. Understanding the educational purposes of prenatal care is a standard health-promotion concept. (This reflects general principles; specific clinical guidance should be individualized and verified against current authoritative recommendations and NCLEX prep materials.)
Source: NCLEX-RN Health Promotion — Prenatal Teaching

Open this question's own page →

14. Which is a general newborn safety teaching point nurses commonly reinforce with new parents?
  1. A Supervision is not important
  2. B Newborns can be left unsupervised on high surfaces
  3. C Never leave a newborn unattended on an elevated surface, and follow current safe-sleep recommendations
  4. D Car seats are unnecessary

Explanation

A general newborn safety teaching point is to never leave a newborn unattended on an elevated surface (such as a changing table or bed) because of the fall risk, along with following current safe-sleep recommendations and using appropriate car-seat safety. These are core anticipatory-guidance points for new parents. Leaving an infant unsupervised on a high surface, dismissing car seats, or downplaying supervision are clearly unsafe. Understanding general newborn-safety teaching is a standard health-promotion concept. (This reflects general safety principles; specific safe-sleep and car-seat recommendations change over time and must be verified against current authoritative guidance and NCLEX prep materials.)
Source: NCLEX-RN Health Promotion — Newborn Safety

Open this question's own page →

Ready to test yourself?

Take the full RN: Health Promotion and Maintenance practice test — questions on every topic, in random order, with practice and mock-exam modes.

Start full practice test →