NCLEX · RN: Physiological Integrity · Topic Study Guide

Physiological Adaptation: Practice Questions & Explanations

15 RN: Physiological Integrity questions on physiological adaptation, each with a worked explanation citing the source handbook.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-RN Test Plan and public-domain nursing reference materials.

Why this topic matters

Physiological adaptation questions cover acute and chronic illness management, hemodynamics, medical emergencies, unexpected responses to therapy, and the priority nursing actions in each.

Below are every physiological adaptation question in our Rn Physiological bank. Read each question, try to answer before reading the explanation, and use the source citations to look up anything you want to verify.

1. A client with COPD reports difficulty breathing. The nurse notes oxygen saturation 88% on room air. What is the appropriate intervention?
  1. A Use only room air
  2. B Apply low-flow oxygen (1-2 L/min) via nasal cannula, titrating to maintain SpO2 around 88-92%, monitor for signs of CO2 retention
  3. C Withhold oxygen
  4. D Apply high-flow oxygen at 10 L/min via nasal cannula

Explanation

COPD clients chronically retain CO2 (carbon dioxide); over time, their respiratory drive may rely on hypoxic drive rather than the normal hypercapnic drive. Giving high-flow oxygen can suppress this hypoxic drive, leading to CO2 retention, hypercapnia, and CO2 narcosis (confusion, sedation, eventual respiratory failure). Goal oxygen saturation for COPD is typically 88-92% (lower than the 95%+ goal for clients without lung disease). Start with low-flow oxygen (1-2 L/min via nasal cannula) and titrate up cautiously. Monitor for signs of CO2 retention: increasing confusion, somnolence, headache, asterixis. Arterial blood gas (ABG) assessment confirms acid-base status. Other management for COPD exacerbation: bronchodilators (albuterol, ipratropium), systemic corticosteroids, antibiotics if infection suspected, non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP) for severe distress, possible intubation in respiratory failure. The fundamental principle: 'Treat the patient, not the number' — but for COPD, don't over-oxygenate.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Physiological Adaptation — COPD

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2. A postoperative client is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention helps prevent DVT?
  1. A Crossing the legs at the knees
  2. B Early ambulation, sequential compression devices (SCDs), prophylactic anticoagulation as ordered, leg exercises while in bed
  3. C Strict bed rest
  4. D Massaging the calves daily

Explanation

DVT prevention is a major postoperative concern. Virchow's triad of DVT risk: venous stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability — all increased after surgery. Prevention strategies: (1) Early ambulation — get clients up walking as soon as safely possible, even on postoperative day 0; (2) Sequential compression devices (SCDs) — pneumatic sleeves on legs that intermittently compress to promote venous return — used continuously when client is in bed; (3) Pharmacologic prophylaxis — typically low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin) or unfractionated heparin in lower doses, per orders; (4) Range-of-motion exercises and ankle pumps when in bed; (5) Adequate hydration; (6) Avoid prolonged sitting with legs dependent; (7) Anti-embolism stockings (TED hose) — provide gradient compression.

Do not: massage the calves (can dislodge a clot); cross legs at the knees (impairs venous return); pillow under the knees (impairs venous return). Signs of DVT: unilateral leg swelling, warmth, erythema, calf pain, sometimes Homan's sign (no longer reliable).

Source: NCLEX-RN, Physiological Adaptation — DVT Prevention

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3. A client with cirrhosis develops increasing abdominal girth, ankle edema, and dyspnea. What is the most likely complication?
  1. A Constipation
  2. B Ascites — accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity due to portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
  3. C Heart attack
  4. D Pneumonia only

Explanation

Ascites is a common complication of cirrhosis caused by portal hypertension (increased pressure in the portal venous system due to liver fibrosis) combined with hypoalbuminemia (the liver can't produce enough albumin to maintain oncotic pressure). Fluid leaks into the peritoneal cavity. Signs: increased abdominal girth, weight gain, abdominal distention with shifting dullness on percussion, prominent abdominal veins (caput medusae), umbilical hernia, dyspnea if diaphragm is compromised. Management: (1) Sodium restriction (typically <2 g/day) — most important dietary intervention; (2) Diuretics — spironolactone first (potassium-sparing, addresses underlying hyperaldosteronism), often combined with furosemide; (3) Daily weight monitoring (same conditions); (4) Abdominal girth measurement; (5) Therapeutic paracentesis for symptomatic relief or refractory ascites (with albumin replacement after large-volume removal); (6) TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) for refractory cases; (7) Liver transplant evaluation. Complications of ascites: spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP — fever, abdominal pain, AMS — diagnosed by paracentesis with PMN >250), hepatorenal syndrome, umbilical hernia. Other cirrhosis complications: variceal bleeding, hepatic encephalopathy.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Physiological Adaptation — Cirrhosis

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4. A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention is most important initially?
  1. A Encourage oral intake to prevent dehydration
  2. B NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas, IV fluids, pain management, monitor for complications (hypocalcemia, shock, ARDS, organ failure)
  3. C Discharge home with rest
  4. D Give a high-fat diet

Explanation

Acute pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas with severe abdominal pain (epigastric, radiating to back), nausea, vomiting, elevated amylase and lipase. Most common causes: gallstones and alcohol use. Severe cases can progress to systemic inflammatory response, ARDS, organ failure, death. Initial management: (1) NPO to rest the pancreas and reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion; (2) Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation — pancreatitis causes massive third-spacing of fluid (lactated Ringer's preferred); monitor urine output, vital signs, mental status; (3) Pain management — typically opioids (hydromorphone or morphine; some sources still avoid morphine due to theoretical concerns about sphincter of Oddi spasm, though evidence is weak); (4) Antiemetics; (5) Monitor electrolytes — hypocalcemia is common (positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's signs); also hypomagnesemia, hyperglycemia (transient or new diabetes); (6) Monitor for complications: pseudocyst, abscess, necrosis, ARDS, AKI, shock, DIC; (7) Identify and treat underlying cause; (8) Nutrition — enteral nutrition (via jejunal tube) preferred over TPN in moderate-severe cases as soon as possible; resume oral intake gradually as symptoms resolve.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Physiological Adaptation — Pancreatitis

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5. A client 2 hours post-appendectomy reports sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and has a temperature of 39.8°C (103.6°F). What does the nurse suspect?
  1. A Peritonitis — inflammation of the peritoneum, likely from surgical contamination or perforation; this is a surgical emergency requiring immediate notification of the provider
  2. B Normal post-operative discomfort
  3. C Incentive spirometry-related muscle strain
  4. D Urinary tract infection

Explanation

PERITONITIS is inflammation of the peritoneum (the membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering abdominal organs). In the post-appendectomy context, it suggests either: (1) the appendix perforated at or during surgery; (2) surgical site contamination; (3) anastomotic leak.

Clinical presentation:

Classic triad: Severe abdominal pain (often described as 'board-like rigidity'); Rigid, board-like abdomen (involuntary guarding — the abdominal wall muscles contract to protect underlying inflamed organs); High fever (39-40°C is typical of significant infection/inflammation).

Additional signs: Rebound tenderness (pain worsens when examiner quickly releases pressure after palpation); Nausea and vomiting; Decreased or absent bowel sounds; Tachycardia and hypotension as sepsis develops.

Nursing priorities: Notify provider/surgeon IMMEDIATELY — do not delay for any additional assessment; this is a potentially life-threatening surgical emergency; Position: semi-Fowler's (helps localise infection and reduces diaphragm pressure); NPO (nothing by mouth — likely return to OR); IV access and fluid resuscitation; Vital signs continuously; Labs: CBC, BMP, blood cultures, lactate; Prepare for emergent return to operating room.

Treatment: Surgical exploration and washout; broad-spectrum antibiotics covering gram-negatives and anaerobes.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Peritonitis Recognition and Intervention

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6. A nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy. Which finding requires the MOST urgent intervention?
  1. A The client requests a mirror
  2. B Absence of breath sounds and decreasing SpO₂ — the laryngectomy stoma is the client's only airway; any obstruction is an immediate airway emergency
  3. C Mild surgical site swelling
  4. D The client cannot speak

Explanation

TOTAL LARYNGECTOMY creates a PERMANENT STOMA (opening) in the anterior neck as the client's ONLY airway — the trachea is no longer connected to the mouth and nose.

Critical concept: A standard bag-valve-mask over the face does NOT ventilate a laryngectomy patient — the mouth and nose are disconnected from the trachea; resuscitation must be done through the STOMA.

Airway emergency signs: Decreasing SpO₂; absent or diminished breath sounds on auscultation at the stoma; audible stridor; increased respiratory effort; cyanosis; patient distress.

Causes of stoma obstruction: Mucus plug (most common — humidified air and suctioning prevent this); blood clot; stoma stenosis; equipment issues.

Nursing priorities: CALL FOR HELP immediately; suction the stoma first (often clears a mucus obstruction); if suctioning doesn't relieve the obstruction, notify the provider/surgical team stat; maintain humidity (humidified air prevents mucus plugging — dry air is the enemy of laryngectomy patients); have stoma covers/bibs available; teach the patient SELF-CARE: how to suction, clean, and cover the stoma.

Emergency response: BVM must be applied to the STOMA, not the face, for resuscitation; all first responders must know the patient has a laryngectomy (medic alert bracelet, 'Neck Breather' notification); some patients choose to post a note at their bedside.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Laryngectomy Care

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7. A client with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has a serum phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL (normal 2.5-4.5). What dietary teaching is MOST relevant?
  1. A Restrict phosphorus-containing foods — especially dairy, dark cola beverages, processed foods, nuts, and chocolate; phosphate binders are taken WITH meals to block dietary phosphate absorption
  2. B Increase dairy intake for calcium
  3. C Eat more protein-rich foods
  4. D Increase fluid intake to 3 litres daily

Explanation

HYPERPHOSPHATAEMIA in CKD occurs because damaged kidneys cannot excrete phosphate effectively. ELEVATED PHOSPHATE has serious consequences: BINDS CALCIUM — hyperphosphataemia causes hypocalcaemia by precipitation (calcium binds with phosphate and deposits in tissues rather than circulating); CALCIPHYLAXIS — calcium-phosphate deposits in blood vessels and soft tissue (vascular calcification is a major cause of cardiovascular mortality in CKD); SECONDARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM — the parathyroid gland responds to low calcium by secreting PTH, which pulls calcium from bones (renal osteodystrophy);

Dietary phosphate restriction: Avoid: dairy products (milk, cheese, yogurt — very high phosphate); dark cola sodas (phosphoric acid added as preservative — avoid all dark colas); processed meats and fast food (phosphate preservatives); nuts and seeds; chocolate; beer and whole grains; Choose: egg whites (protein with low phosphate); fresh fruits and vegetables; white bread and white rice (lower phosphate than whole grain).

Phosphate binders: Taken WITH every meal and snack; bind dietary phosphate in the GI tract to prevent absorption; types: calcium carbonate (Tums), calcium acetate (PhosLo), sevelamer (non-calcium, preferred when calcium is already high), lanthanum carbonate.

Nursing teaching: Take binders WITH food (not before, not after); binders are ineffective if taken on an empty stomach; even small high-phosphate snacks require a binder dose.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — CKD, Hyperphosphataemia Management

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8. A client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure has SpO₂ of 88% and audible crackles throughout both lung fields. What is the PRIORITY nursing action?
  1. A Obtain a 12-lead ECG
  2. B Administer a scheduled oral diuretic dose
  3. C Elevate the head of the bed to high Fowler's position (90 degrees) and administer supplemental oxygen per order — this is the fastest non-pharmacological intervention to improve oxygenation in pulmonary oedema
  4. D Insert a urinary catheter for accurate output measurement

Explanation

ACUTE DECOMPENSATED HEART FAILURE with pulmonary oedema and SpO₂ of 88% is a respiratory emergency requiring immediate intervention. HIGH FOWLER'S POSITION (90 degrees or sitting bolt upright): MECHANISM — gravity pulls fluid from the upper lung fields downward; reduces venous return to the heart (decreasing preload); reduces the work of breathing; allows the diaphragm to descend more fully (abdominal organs don't compress the diaphragm as much when upright); EFFECT — can improve SpO₂ and reduce dyspnoea within minutes;

Oxygen: Supplemental oxygen increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli; in severe cases, non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (CPAP, BiPAP) may be needed if SpO₂ doesn't improve with supplemental oxygen; HIGH-FLOW OXYGEN target: SpO₂ above 94% in most patients; SUBSEQUENT INTERVENTIONS (ordered by priority after positioning and O₂): IV diuresis (furosemide IV — onset 15-30 min, faster than oral); nitrates (IV nitroglycerin for preload and afterload reduction); morphine (reduces preload and anxiety — use cautiously); ACEI/ARB/neprilysin inhibitor for longer-term management.

Urinary catheter: Important for accurate output monitoring but not before addressing the immediate respiratory compromise; OUTPUT ASSESSMENT follows stabilisation of acute respiratory status.

Ecog: Important but not before respiratory stabilisation.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Acute Heart Failure, Priority Intervention

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9. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with acute exacerbation. Their SpO₂ is 84% on room air. What oxygen delivery target should the nurse aim for?
  1. A SpO₂ 98-100% — maximum oxygenation
  2. B SpO₂ 88-92% using controlled oxygen delivery (nasal cannula at 1-2 L/min or Venturi mask at 24-28%) — COPD patients with chronic CO₂ retention may rely on hypoxic drive; high-flow oxygen can suppress ventilation
  3. C SpO₂ 95% using a non-rebreather mask
  4. D No oxygen — COPD patients should not receive supplemental oxygen

Explanation

OXYGEN THERAPY IN COPD EXACERBATION requires understanding the hypoxic drive concept — though modern evidence has refined the approach.

The hypoxic drive: Healthy individuals drive breathing by rising CO₂ levels (central chemo-receptors); COPD patients with chronic CO₂ retention become desensitised to high CO₂; some use HYPOXIA as their primary ventilatory drive; giving high-flow oxygen to these patients can reduce their respiratory drive, causing hypoventilation and worsening respiratory failure.

Evidence-based target: SpO₂ 88-92% for COPD patients with known or suspected chronic CO₂ retention (hypercapnia); titrate oxygen up to this target, not beyond; avoid high-flow oxygen unless the patient is in imminent respiratory arrest.

Oxygen delivery options: Nasal cannula 1-2 L/min (approximate FiO₂ 24-28%); Venturi mask — precise FiO₂ delivery (24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40%, 60%) — preferred when exact concentration matters; NOT non-rebreather mask (delivers 60-80% FiO₂ — too high for most COPD patients).

Nursing priorities: ABG measurement to assess baseline PaCO₂; titrate oxygen by oximetry toward 88-92%; monitor respiratory rate and level of consciousness; prepare for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP) if work of breathing increases or consciousness decreases; intubation as last resort.

Important: For a COPD patient with SpO₂ of 84%, you DO give oxygen — just controlled amounts; do not withhold oxygen from a hypoxaemic patient for fear of suppressing drive; the risks of severe hypoxaemia (organ damage, death) outweigh the hypoxic drive concern.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — COPD Oxygen Therapy Target

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10. A client is admitted following a suspected opioid overdose. They have a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute, pinpoint pupils, and are barely responsive. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
  1. A Position the client on their left side and observe
  2. B Administer flumazenil to reverse sedation
  3. C Obtain a blood toxicology screen before treating
  4. D Administer naloxone (Narcan) and support respirations — naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose; the clinical presentation (triad of respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, decreased consciousness) is diagnostic; do not delay treatment to confirm with laboratory tests

Explanation

OPIOID OVERDOSE is a life-threatening emergency with a specific antidote that must be administered rapidly.

The opioid overdose triad: (1) Respiratory depression (rate below 12, here 6 — severely depressed); (2) Miosis (pinpoint pupils); (3) Altered/decreased consciousness. This classic triad is diagnostic of opioid overdose even before laboratory confirmation.

Treatment: NALOXONE (NARCAN): Opioid receptor antagonist — competitively blocks and reverses opioid effects.

Dosing: 0.4-2 mg IV, IM, or intranasal; onset: IV seconds, IM/SubQ 3-5 minutes, intranasal 2-3 minutes; may need REPEATED DOSES — naloxone's duration of action (30-90 minutes) is shorter than most opioids; if opioid wears off before naloxone metabolises, the patient will re-sedate.

While preparing naloxone: Support ventilations (bag-valve-mask at 10-12 breaths/minute); oxygen; position supine; call for resuscitation support.

After naloxone: Patient may wake up in opioid withdrawal — agitated, diaphoretic, tachycardic, may attempt to leave; do not give additional opioids; maintain airway; continuous monitoring; repeat naloxone doses as needed.

Flumazenil: This is the benzodiazepine antidote, not the opioid antidote — do not confuse; flumazenil has numerous contraindications and is used less often.

Clinical clue: Pinpoint pupils (miosis) = opioids; mydriasis (dilated pupils) = stimulants or anticholinergics. Opioid miosis is a key distinguishing feature.

Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Opioid Overdose, Naloxone Administration

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11. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the appropriate oxygen administration goal?
  1. A Administer high-flow oxygen to achieve 100% saturation
  2. B Withhold all oxygen
  3. C Administer oxygen only at night
  4. D Administer low-flow oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation around 88-92%, monitoring closely

Explanation

For clients with COPD, administer LOW-FLOW oxygen to maintain SpO2 around 88-92% (target may vary, but lower than for other clients). NCLEX physiological/respiratory.

Rationale: Some clients with chronic CO2 retention rely partly on a 'hypoxic drive' to breathe; giving HIGH concentrations of oxygen could (in some cases) reduce their respiratory drive — so titrate oxygen carefully to the target range rather than aiming for 100%. Start low (e.g., 1-2 L/min via nasal cannula) and monitor respiratory status, SpO2, and level of consciousness closely. NEVER withhold oxygen from a hypoxic client, but titrate carefully. Understanding cautious, low-flow oxygen titration for COPD is a commonly tested concept.

Source: NCLEX Physiological — COPD Oxygen Therapy

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12. A nurse suspects a client is having a stroke. Using the acronym FAST, what does it stand for?
  1. A Fast, Active, Strong, Tall
  2. B Fever, Aches, Sweating, Tiredness
  3. C Fatigue, Anxiety, Stress, Tension
  4. D Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services

Explanation

FAST is the stroke recognition acronym: F — FACE drooping (ask the person to smile; one side droops); A — ARM weakness (ask them to raise both arms; one drifts down); S — SPEECH difficulty (slurred or strange speech); T — TIME to call emergency services immediately (note the time symptoms started). NCLEX physiological/neurological. Rapid recognition is critical because stroke treatment (like clot-busting tPA for ischemic stroke) is time-sensitive — 'time is brain.' Other signs: sudden numbness, confusion, vision changes, severe headache, trouble walking. Document the time of symptom onset (determines treatment eligibility). Knowing FAST for rapid stroke recognition is a commonly tested, time-critical NCLEX concept.
Source: NCLEX Physiological — Stroke Recognition (FAST)

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13. A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis who develops confusion and asterixis (flapping tremor). The nurse recognizes these as signs of:
  1. A Hepatic encephalopathy (caused by elevated ammonia levels)
  2. B Normal recovery
  3. C Improved liver function
  4. D Dehydration

Explanation

Confusion and ASTERIXIS (a flapping tremor of the hands) in a client with cirrhosis indicate HEPATIC ENCEPHALOPATHY — a complication caused by the failing liver's inability to clear AMMONIA (and other toxins) from the blood; elevated ammonia affects the brain, causing altered mental status, confusion, asterixis, and possibly coma. NCLEX physiological/GI.

Treatment: LACTULOSE (reduces ammonia by promoting its excretion in stool — expect increased bowel movements); sometimes rifaximin (antibiotic); reduce protein intake (protein metabolism produces ammonia) per provider; monitor ammonia levels and mental status. Recognizing hepatic encephalopathy (confusion + asterixis from elevated ammonia) and its treatment (lactulose) is a commonly tested NCLEX concept.

Source: NCLEX Physiological — Hepatic Encephalopathy

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14. A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury. Which laboratory values would the nurse expect to be elevated?
  1. A Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
  2. B White blood cells only
  3. C Hemoglobin and hematocrit
  4. D Calcium and sodium

Explanation

In ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY (AKI) or kidney failure, the kidneys can't filter waste, so BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and CREATININE rise (azotemia) — these are the primary markers of decreased kidney function. NCLEX physiological/renal. CREATININE is the more specific indicator of kidney function. OTHER changes in kidney failure: HYPERKALEMIA (potassium retained — dangerous), metabolic acidosis, fluid overload, elevated phosphate, low calcium, and anemia (reduced erythropoietin).

Monitor: urine output (oliguria <400 mL/day or anuria), daily weights, electrolytes (especially potassium), fluid balance. Knowing that BUN and creatinine rise in kidney failure (and the associated hyperkalemia risk) is a heavily tested NCLEX renal concept.

Source: NCLEX Physiological — Acute Kidney Injury Labs

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15. A nurse is teaching a client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a bronchodilator and a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction is correct?
  1. A Use both at the exact same time
  2. B Use the corticosteroid first
  3. C Use the bronchodilator first, wait a few minutes, then use the corticosteroid; rinse the mouth after the corticosteroid
  4. D Never rinse the mouth

Explanation

When using both a BRONCHODILATOR and a CORTICOSTEROID inhaler, use the BRONCHODILATOR FIRST (it opens the airways), wait a few minutes, THEN use the corticosteroid (so it reaches deeper into the now-open airways). NCLEX physiological/respiratory. RINSE THE MOUTH after using the CORTICOSTEROID inhaler to prevent oral thrush (candidiasis), a common side effect of inhaled steroids. MDI technique: shake, exhale, seal lips, press and inhale slowly/deeply, hold breath ~10 seconds; use a spacer if available; wait between puffs. Knowing the order (bronchodilator first) and rinsing the mouth after corticosteroids are commonly tested inhaler-teaching points.
Source: NCLEX Physiological — Inhaler Administration

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