NCLEX · RN: Physiological Integrity · Topic Study Guide

Reduction of Risk Potential: Practice Questions & Explanations

5 RN: Physiological Integrity questions on reduction of risk potential, each with a worked explanation citing the source handbook.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-RN Test Plan and public-domain nursing reference materials.

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Below are every reduction of risk potential question in our RN: Physiological Integrity bank. Read each question, try to answer before reading the explanation, and use the source citations to look up anything you want to verify in the official handbook.

1. After administering an IV antibiotic, the client develops difficulty breathing, urticaria, and hypotension. What is the priority action?
  1. A Slow the infusion rate
  2. B Stop the infusion immediately, maintain airway, call for help, administer epinephrine per protocol, prepare for advanced airway management
  3. C Document the reaction and continue
  4. D Administer another dose

Explanation

This is anaphylactic reaction to the IV antibiotic. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening systemic allergic reaction requiring immediate action: (1) Stop the offending agent immediately — close the IV clamp; (2) Maintain the airway — anaphylaxis can cause rapid laryngeal swelling; (3) Call for help (rapid response or code team); (4) Administer epinephrine IM (0.3-0.5 mg adult dose, 1:1000 solution, IM in vastus lateralis) — epinephrine is first-line and given immediately; (5) Position supine with legs elevated unless respiratory distress requires head elevated; (6) Apply high-flow oxygen; (7) Establish second IV; bolus fluids for hypotension; (8) Continuous monitoring; (9) Prepare for intubation. Secondary medications: diphenhydramine (antihistamine), methylprednisolone (corticosteroid), bronchodilator if wheezing. After stabilization: identify the allergen, document the reaction, update the medical record allergy list, place an allergy band, educate the client and family. Biphasic reactions can occur 8-12 hours later, so observation period is required.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Reduction of Risk — Anaphylaxis
2. What is the most important nursing assessment after a thoracentesis procedure?
  1. A Bowel sounds
  2. B Respiratory status (rate, effort, oxygen saturation, breath sounds) for signs of pneumothorax
  3. C Bladder distention
  4. D Pupil response

Explanation

Thoracentesis is the insertion of a needle through the chest wall to remove fluid from the pleural space. Main complications: (1) Pneumothorax — air enters the pleural space, possibly causing lung collapse; signs include sudden shortness of breath, sharp chest pain, decreased or absent breath sounds on affected side, tracheal deviation (large pneumothorax), hypoxia; (2) Bleeding; (3) Re-expansion pulmonary edema (if too much fluid removed too quickly); (4) Infection. Post-procedure nursing: (1) Position the client upright or on the unaffected side initially; (2) Monitor respiratory status frequently (vital signs every 15 minutes for 1 hour, then every hour, then per protocol); (3) Auscultate breath sounds bilaterally and compare to pre-procedure; (4) Monitor for shortness of breath, chest pain, hemoptysis, hypoxia; (5) Chest x-ray usually ordered to verify lung expansion and rule out pneumothorax; (6) Document fluid removed (color, character, amount). Report sudden change in respiratory status immediately. The same vigilance applies after any chest procedure: central line insertion, lung biopsy, chest tube placement.
Source: NCLEX-RN, Reduction of Risk — Post-Thoracentesis
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding requires stopping the transfusion IMMEDIATELY?
  1. A The client reports feeling slightly cold
  2. B The client develops sudden chills, fever, back pain, and dark urine 15 minutes into the transfusion — these are signs of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (ABO incompatibility)
  3. C The client's BP increases by 5 mmHg
  4. D The client asks for a warm blanket

Explanation

ACUTE HAEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION (AHTR) is the most life-threatening transfusion complication and is caused by ABO blood group incompatibility. CLASSIC SIGNS (appear within the first 15-50 mL): Sudden chills and fever; Low back pain (retroperitoneal lysis of red blood cells); Dark/red-brown urine (haemoglobinuria from lysed red blood cell haemoglobin); Chest tightness and dyspnoea; Hypotension and tachycardia; Flank pain; Anxiety and feeling of 'impending doom.' NURSING RESPONSE — SEQUENCE: (1) STOP THE TRANSFUSION IMMEDIATELY — the most critical step; do not flush the line; (2) MAINTAIN IV ACCESS — keep the IV line open with normal saline using a NEW IV tubing set (the blood-containing tubing must not be used to infuse anything further); (3) NOTIFY THE PROVIDER AND BLOOD BANK IMMEDIATELY; (4) MONITOR vital signs every 5 minutes; (5) SEND the blood bag, new tubing, and blood samples to the blood bank for investigation; (6) COLLECT urine sample (haemoglobinuria confirms AHTR); (7) SUPPORT as ordered: IV fluids; vasopressors if hypotensive; maintain urine output above 100 mL/hour to prevent acute tubular necrosis from haemoglobin precipitating in renal tubules; PREVENTION: Two-nurse verification of patient ID and blood product compatibility before every transfusion is the primary prevention measure.
Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Transfusion Reactions
4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which pre-procedure assessment finding is MOST important to report to the provider?
  1. A The client had a small meal 12 hours ago
  2. B The client takes warfarin daily — anticoagulants significantly increase the risk of GI bleeding during and after colonoscopy with biopsy; the provider will need to determine whether to stop/bridge anticoagulation before the procedure
  3. C The client has mild anxiety about the procedure
  4. D The client prefers to have the procedure with sedation

Explanation

PRE-PROCEDURE ASSESSMENT for colonoscopy must identify bleeding risk factors because colonoscopy can involve biopsy, polyp removal, and other interventions that create mucosal wounds. ANTICOAGULANTS: Warfarin, direct oral anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran), and antiplatelet agents (clopidogrel, aspirin) all increase bleeding risk during endoscopic procedures; THE PROVIDER DECISION: For elective colonoscopy with polypectomy anticipated: warfarin is typically held 5 days before with or without heparin bridging (depending on thromboembolic risk); direct oral anticoagulants held 24-48 hours before; antiplatelet decisions are case-specific; for diagnostic-only colonoscopy with low bleeding risk, some anticoagulants may be continued at reduced risk; INR SHOULD BE CHECKED: For patients on warfarin, INR should be therapeutic or sub-therapeutic before the procedure; an INR above 2.0-2.5 is typically a contraindication to proceeding; NURSING ROLE: Accurate medication reconciliation — specifically ask about blood thinners, herbals (fish oil, vitamin E, ginkgo also affect bleeding); report anticoagulant use to the provider/gastroenterologist; ensure the patient understands any medication-holding instructions; ALSO IMPORTANT: NPO status, bowel prep completion, allergies to sedating agents, and implanted devices (pacemakers — electrocautery precautions).
Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Pre-Procedure Assessment, Colonoscopy
5. A nurse is caring for a client following a lumbar spinal fusion. The client reports sudden onset of severe leg pain and is unable to move their toes. What is the PRIORITY action?
  1. A Administer a PRN analgesic per order
  2. B Immediately notify the surgeon — new neurological deficit (inability to move toes) and severe leg pain following spinal surgery may indicate spinal cord compression from haematoma or hardware failure; this is a surgical emergency with a narrow window for intervention
  3. C Reposition the client and reassess in 30 minutes
  4. D Order a urinalysis to check for infection

Explanation

POST-SPINAL SURGERY NEUROLOGICAL DETERIORATION is a surgical emergency. NEW ONSET OF MOTOR DEFICIT (inability to move toes) in a post-laminectomy or spinal fusion patient is NEVER normal — it requires IMMEDIATE assessment and intervention. POSSIBLE CAUSES: EPIDURAL HAEMATOMA — blood collects in the epidural space and compresses the spinal cord; most common cause of post-spinal surgery neurological deficit; WINDOW FOR INTERVENTION: neurological function can often be preserved if decompressive surgery occurs within 4-6 hours of onset; beyond this window, deficits may become permanent; HARDWARE COMPLICATION — screw or cage malpositioning; OEDEMA — surgical site oedema compressing neural structures. WHAT NOT TO DO: Do NOT administer analgesics and re-assess — the pain and neurological deficit require immediate evaluation, and analgesics may mask the assessment; Do NOT assume it's normal post-operative discomfort — motor deficit is NEVER within normal range post-operatively; Do NOT wait — the speed of surgical decompression determines whether function can be preserved. NURSING ASSESSMENT TO REPORT: Exact onset time; baseline neurological assessment before surgery (what was normal for this patient?); current motor, sensory, and bowel/bladder function; vital signs; pain characteristics; AFTER NOTIFICATION: Prepare for emergency imaging (MRI or CT myelogram); possible emergency return to OR.
Source: NCLEX-RN Physiological Integrity — Post-Spinal Surgery Neurological Emergency

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