NCLEX · Study Guide

NCLEX-PN Immunizations and Preventive Health — Practice Questions

Immunisation schedule questions and contraindications for live vaccines are guaranteed NCLEX-PN topics. These questions cover the schedule milestones and the live vaccine rules that appear most consistently on the exam.

Two immunisation topics dominate the NCLEX-PN: the timing of key childhood vaccines (MMR at 12-15 months, Hep B at birth, DTaP at 2 months) and the live vaccine contraindications (MMR and Varicella are contraindicated in immunocompromised patients and pregnant women).

Source

How these questions were selected

These 10 questions were curated by the 247SimpleTests Editorial Team from our PN: Health Promotion and Maintenance practice bank. Each was selected because it covers a concept that appears frequently on the real exam and that many candidates find difficult on their first attempt. The full practice test has 20 questions — work through all of them once you've reviewed this guide.

The questions

Question 1

According to Erikson's theory, what is the primary developmental task of a toddler (ages 1-3)?

  1. Trust vs. Mistrust
  2. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt ✓
  3. Initiative vs. Guilt
  4. Industry vs. Inferiority
▶ Show full explanation

Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages identify AUTONOMY vs. SHAME AND DOUBT as the primary conflict of toddlerhood (approximately ages 1-3). During this stage the child is developing a sense of personal control and independence. Key behaviors include: insisting on doing things independently ('me do it'); negativism and oppositional behavior ('no'); parallel play (alongside but not yet cooperative with peers); developing self-feeding, walking, and early language skills. Nursing implications: encourage independence within safe limits; offer limited, simple choices ('Do you want the red cup or the blue cup?'); avoid shaming the child for accidents or failures; recognize that toddler negativism is developmentally normal. TRUST vs. MISTRUST is the infant stage (birth to 18 months) — centered on whether the caregiver is reliable and nurturing. INITIATIVE vs. GUILT is the preschool stage (ages 3-6) — the child explores purpose and pursues goals. INDUSTRY vs. INFERIORITY is the school-age stage (ages 6-12) — centered on competence and achievement. LPN/LVNs are expected to understand normal developmental milestones to recognize deviations and provide anticipatory guidance to families. Toddler safety concerns include: choking hazards (foods must be cut small, small toys avoided), falls, poisoning (medications must be locked away), drowning (never leave unattended near water).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Growth and Development

Full Q&A page →

Question 2

A 2-month-old infant is brought in for a well-child visit. Which milestone is EXPECTED at this age?

  1. Sits without support
  2. Social smile and holds head up briefly when prone ✓
  3. Pulls to a standing position
  4. Walks independently
▶ Show full explanation

By age 2 months, normal developmental milestones include: SOCIAL SMILE (smiling in response to a face or voice — a key early social milestone, distinct from the reflexive newborn smile); HOLDS HEAD UP briefly when placed on the abdomen (prone position); follows objects with eyes past midline; responds to sound; coos and makes vowel sounds; recognizes parent's face and voice. SITTING WITHOUT SUPPORT typically develops around 6-8 months. PULLING TO STAND typically occurs around 8-10 months. WALKING INDEPENDENTLY usually happens around 9-15 months (average 12 months). RED FLAGS at 2 months: no social smile by 2 months; doesn't follow objects with eyes; doesn't react to loud sounds; very floppy tone or very stiff tone; doesn't coo or make sounds. PN role: document milestone assessment during well-child visits; report to RN/provider any delays; provide parents anticipatory guidance about upcoming milestones; reinforce safe sleep (supine position, firm mattress, no soft bedding — 'back to sleep' for SIDS prevention). DEVELOPMENTAL SCREENING tools used in clinical practice include the Denver Developmental Screening Test (Denver II), which assesses four domains: personal-social, fine motor, language, and gross motor. Early intervention referral is recommended when delays are identified.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Growth and Development, Infants

Full Q&A page →

Question 3

A nurse is teaching a newly pregnant client about early prenatal care. Which of the following instructions is MOST important to give regarding folic acid?

  1. Start folic acid only in the third trimester
  2. Take 400-800 mcg of folic acid daily, ideally beginning before conception and continuing through the first trimester to reduce the risk of neural tube defects ✓
  3. Folic acid is optional and has no proven benefit
  4. Take folic acid only if you have a family history of neural tube defects
▶ Show full explanation

FOLIC ACID supplementation is one of the most strongly evidence-based prenatal interventions. Adequate folic acid intake reduces the risk of NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS (NTDs) — most critically spina bifida (incomplete closure of the spinal column) and anencephaly (absence of major brain structures). The NEURAL TUBE closes by 28 days after fertilization — often before a woman even knows she is pregnant. This is why folic acid is recommended BEFORE CONCEPTION and throughout at least the FIRST TRIMESTER. DOSE: the CDC and ACOG recommend 400-800 mcg/day for all women of childbearing age; women with a history of a prior NTD pregnancy should take 4 mg/day (400 mcg = 0.4 mg; 4 mg is 10x the standard dose — prescription-strength). FOOD SOURCES of folate: leafy green vegetables (spinach, kale), fortified cereals and bread, beans, citrus fruits, nuts. Since 1998, US grain products have been mandated to be fortified with folic acid. PN TEACHING POINTS: emphasize that folic acid must be started BEFORE PREGNANCY for maximum benefit; use simple language ('folic acid helps prevent serious birth defects of the brain and spine'); confirm they understand the dose and can identify a folic acid supplement; note that prenatal vitamins typically contain the required amount. Additional first-trimester teaching: avoid alcohol, smoking, illicit drugs; limit caffeine; avoid raw meats, unpasteurized cheeses, high-mercury fish; take prenatal vitamins including iron; establish OB care as early as possible; be alert to warning signs (heavy bleeding, severe abdominal pain, fever).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Antepartum Care

Full Q&A page →

Question 4

During the immediate newborn period, which of the following interventions is given to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

  1. Vitamin C injection
  2. Vitamin K (phytonadione) injection, given within 6 hours of birth to prevent bleeding caused by low vitamin K levels in newborns ✓
  3. Erythromycin eye ointment
  4. Hepatitis B vaccine
▶ Show full explanation

VITAMIN K (phytonadione) is administered to all newborns within 6 hours of birth to prevent VITAMIN K DEFICIENCY BLEEDING (VKDB), formerly called hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. WHY NEWBORNS ARE AT RISK: (1) Vitamin K does not cross the placenta well; (2) Newborns have limited intestinal bacteria (which produce vitamin K); (3) Breast milk contains low levels of vitamin K; (4) The newborn liver is immature in vitamin K-dependent clotting factor production. VKDB presents as: intracranial hemorrhage (brain bleed — can be fatal or cause permanent disability); GI bleeding; bleeding from umbilicus or circumcision site. DOSE: 0.5-1 mg IM (intramuscular) into the vastus lateralis (anterolateral thigh) within 6 hours of birth. PN ROLE: administer the injection per protocol; document administration; teach parents why it is given (some families decline due to misconceptions); explain it is one injection, not a series. ERYTHROMYCIN EYE OINTMENT is the prophylaxis for ophthalmia neonatorum (gonorrheal and chlamydial eye infection from birth canal exposure) — different purpose. HEPATITIS B VACCINE is given before hospital discharge (first dose in the series) — prevents hepatitis B infection. The combination of Vitamin K, erythromycin ointment, and hepatitis B vaccine in the immediate newborn period is standard of care in the US.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Newborn Care

Full Q&A page →

Question 5

At a 12-month well-child visit, which vaccines are typically administered according to the CDC immunization schedule?

  1. HPV only
  2. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella), Varicella, Hepatitis A — along with any catch-up doses; this is a major immunization visit ✓
  3. Only influenza vaccine
  4. No vaccines are given at 12 months
▶ Show full explanation

The 12-MONTH VISIT is one of the most vaccine-intensive well-child visits. The CDC Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) schedule typically includes at 12-15 months: MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) — first dose; VARICELLA (chickenpox) — first dose; HEPATITIS A — first dose (series of 2 doses, 6 months apart); PCV15 or PCV20 (pneumococcal) — 4th dose; Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) — 4th dose (in some series); plus INFLUENZA annually starting at 6 months. MMR CAUTION: live attenuated vaccine — contraindicated in immunocompromised patients; delay if client recently received blood products or immunoglobulin; obtain pregnancy screen for any female of childbearing age (contraindicated in pregnancy); avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks after; may cause fever and mild rash 7-12 days post-injection. VARICELLA: also live attenuated — same precautions as MMR. PN NURSING RESPONSIBILITIES at vaccine visits: review immunization record and identify needed vaccines; check for contraindications (fever, immunosuppression, pregnancy, prior severe reaction, egg allergy for some vaccines); provide VIS (Vaccine Information Statement) to parents before each vaccine; document vaccine, lot number, manufacturer, site, and route; monitor for immediate allergic reaction after injection; document in state immunization registry if required. IMPORTANT: PN/LVN scope typically includes administering vaccines and educating patients; development of the vaccine schedule and decisions about significant contraindications are RN/provider level decisions.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Immunizations

Full Q&A page →

Question 6

Which screening test is recommended for ALL adults starting at age 45 (or earlier for high-risk individuals) to detect colorectal cancer?

  1. Mammography
  2. Colorectal cancer screening — options include colonoscopy every 10 years, fecal occult blood test (FOBT) or FIT annually, or stool DNA test every 1-3 years ✓
  3. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
  4. Chest X-ray
▶ Show full explanation

COLORECTAL CANCER SCREENING is recommended for all adults beginning at age 45 (the American Cancer Society updated their recommendation from 50 to 45 in 2018 due to rising rates in younger adults; the USPSTF now recommends starting at 45 as well). Earlier screening is recommended for HIGHER-RISK individuals: family history of colorectal cancer or polyps; personal history of polyps; inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis); Lynch syndrome or other hereditary conditions — these individuals may start at 40 or younger, depending on the specific risk. SCREENING OPTIONS: COLONOSCOPY every 10 years (gold standard — both diagnostic and therapeutic, can remove polyps during the same procedure); FECAL IMMUNOCHEMICAL TEST (FIT) or FECAL OCCULT BLOOD TEST (FOBT) — annually; STOOL DNA TEST (Cologuard) every 1-3 years; CT COLONOGRAPHY (virtual colonoscopy) every 5 years; FLEXIBLE SIGMOIDOSCOPY every 5 years. NURSING ROLE: provide education about colorectal cancer risk and the importance of screening; discuss available options; reinforce that colonoscopy prep (bowel preparation) is required and review instructions; remind that positive stool tests require follow-up colonoscopy. MAMMOGRAPHY is for breast cancer screening (annually or every 2 years starting at age 40-50 depending on risk and guidelines used). PSA is for prostate cancer screening in men (individualized decision starting at age 50-55). CHEST X-RAY/CT: low-dose CT for lung cancer screening is recommended for high-risk adults (current or former heavy smokers ages 50-80).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Health Screening

Full Q&A page →

Question 7

A client smokes 1.5 packs per day and wants to quit. Which approach is MOST evidence-based as first-line treatment?

  1. Willpower alone, without any support
  2. Combination therapy: nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) plus a medication (varenicline or bupropion) combined with behavioral counseling; combination has higher quit rates than any single approach ✓
  3. Switching to e-cigarettes
  4. Simply reducing number of cigarettes smoked
▶ Show full explanation

Tobacco cessation is the single most impactful modifiable health behavior change for most smokers. EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH: the 2008 USPHS Clinical Practice Guideline (updated) recommends COMBINATION of pharmacotherapy plus behavioral counseling as the most effective approach. PHARMACOTHERAPY OPTIONS: (1) NICOTINE REPLACEMENT THERAPY (NRT) — patches, gum, lozenge, inhaler, nasal spray; reduces withdrawal symptoms; multiple forms can be combined (e.g., patch for baseline + gum for cravings); available OTC and prescription; (2) VARENICLINE (Chantix) — prescription; partial nicotinic agonist; blocks nicotine's rewarding effects; most effective single pharmacotherapy; monitor for neuropsychiatric side effects; (3) BUPROPION (Zyban/Wellbutrin) — prescription antidepressant with nicotine receptor effects; can be used alone or combined with NRT. BEHAVIORAL COUNSELING: individual or group; motivational interviewing; quit-smoking programs; quit lines (1-800-QUIT-NOW national helpline — free). THE 5 A's FRAMEWORK for brief intervention: ASK (about tobacco use at every visit); ADVISE (urge to quit in a clear, personalized, strong way); ASSESS (readiness to quit); ASSIST (offer pharmacotherapy, counseling, referral); ARRANGE (follow-up to check on progress). E-CIGARETTES are not FDA-approved cessation devices and evidence for their effectiveness as cessation tools is insufficient; they carry their own health risks. Simply reducing cigarette count ('cutting down') without a quit plan usually doesn't lead to lasting cessation. PN ROLE: ask about tobacco use at every visit; advise to quit; provide brief counseling; refer to cessation resources; acknowledge that quit attempts are often required multiple times before success.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — High-Risk Behaviors, Tobacco

Full Q&A page →

Question 8

A client asks how much moderate-intensity physical activity adults should get per week to maintain health. What is the current recommendation?

  1. 10 minutes per week
  2. At least 150 minutes (2.5 hours) of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week, plus muscle-strengthening activities on 2 or more days per week ✓
  3. No formal recommendation exists
  4. 1 hour per year
▶ Show full explanation

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services PHYSICAL ACTIVITY GUIDELINES FOR AMERICANS (2nd edition) recommends for adults: AEROBIC ACTIVITY: at least 150-300 minutes per week of moderate-intensity activity (like brisk walking, casual biking, water aerobics) OR 75-150 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity activity (like running, swimming laps, aerobic dance) OR an equivalent combination. Additional health benefits occur with more than 300 minutes. MUSCLE-STRENGTHENING: activities of moderate or greater intensity involving all major muscle groups, 2 or more days per week (resistance training, body-weight exercises, heavy gardening). SITTING LESS: any physical activity, even just reducing sitting time, has health benefits. CHILDREN (6-17): 60 minutes or more of moderate-to-vigorous activity per day; include vigorous intensity and muscle/bone-strengthening activities on at least 3 days/week. OLDER ADULTS: same recommendations as adults + add balance activities to prevent falls; 'some is better than none' is emphasized. HEALTH BENEFITS OF REGULAR PHYSICAL ACTIVITY: reduced risk of heart disease, stroke, type 2 diabetes, some cancers; weight management; improved bone and muscle health; improved mental health (reduces depression, anxiety); improved sleep; reduced risk of falls in older adults. NURSING ROLE: assess current activity levels; provide individualized guidance; help identify realistic ways to increase activity; reinforce that ANY activity is better than none — even breaking up long sitting periods with short walks; connect to community resources (walking programs, gym, senior center fitness).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Lifestyle Choices

Full Q&A page →

Question 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The client reports feeling sad and crying without reason. Which postpartum mood disorder does this MOST likely represent?

  1. Postpartum psychosis
  2. Postpartum blues (baby blues) — a very common, self-limiting mood change in the first 2 weeks after birth affecting up to 80% of new mothers ✓
  3. Postpartum depression
  4. Postpartum anxiety disorder
▶ Show full explanation

POSTPARTUM BLUES ('baby blues') is the MOST COMMON postpartum mood change, affecting up to 70-80% of new mothers. Characteristics: onset within 1-3 days after delivery; peaks around day 3-5; resolves on its own within 10-14 days; symptoms include tearfulness, emotional lability, irritability, anxiety, mood swings — often coexisting with happiness about the new baby; does NOT significantly impair functioning. CAUSE: largely attributed to rapid hormonal shifts (dramatic drop in estrogen and progesterone after delivery), combined with sleep deprivation, exhaustion, and emotional adjustment to motherhood. NURSING CARE: reassure that baby blues is NORMAL and TEMPORARY; encourage rest and support; monitor for progression to postpartum depression; validate feelings without reinforcing that something is seriously wrong. POSTPARTUM DEPRESSION (PPD): affects 10-15% of new mothers; onset usually within 4 weeks but can occur anytime in the first year; DOES NOT resolve on its own; symptoms persist longer than 2 weeks and significantly impair functioning; requires treatment (therapy, medication); Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is the primary screening tool. POSTPARTUM PSYCHOSIS: rare (1-2 per 1000); severe psychiatric emergency; symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behavior, rapid mood swings, confusion; onset within 1-2 weeks; IMMEDIATE psychiatric referral required; infant safety must be ensured. PN ROLE: screen for mood disorders at postpartum visits using EPDS; provide education; report concerns to RN/provider; support and refer as needed.

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Postpartum Care

Full Q&A page →

Question 10

Which of the following is a NORMAL physiological change of aging rather than a pathological finding?

  1. Complete loss of short-term memory
  2. Decreased skin turgor, slower wound healing, reduced visual acuity, and longer reaction times — these are normal aging changes ✓
  3. New-onset urinary incontinence
  4. Severe confusion and disorientation at all times
▶ Show full explanation

Distinguishing NORMAL AGING from PATHOLOGY is essential nursing knowledge. NORMAL PHYSIOLOGICAL CHANGES OF AGING include: SKIN — decreased turgor (pinch test not reliable for dehydration in elderly), thinning, dryness, increased bruising, slower wound healing, age spots (lentigines), decreased subcutaneous fat; VISION — presbyopia (difficulty focusing on close objects, requiring reading glasses), reduced dark adaptation, increased sensitivity to glare, reduced peripheral vision, smaller pupil size; HEARING — presbycusis (high-frequency hearing loss), difficulty distinguishing speech in background noise; NEUROLOGICAL — slower reaction times, longer time to process information, some reduction in word retrieval (but NOT memory loss significant enough to impair daily life); RESPIRATORY — decreased lung elasticity, reduced maximum breathing capacity; CARDIOVASCULAR — stiffening of vessels (increased systolic BP), slowed heart rate response; RENAL — decreased GFR, reduced drug clearance; GI — slowed gastric motility (constipation tendency), reduced taste/smell; MUSCULOSKELETAL — sarcopenia (muscle loss), osteoporosis risk, joint changes, decreased height. NOT NORMAL AGING: severe short-term memory loss, confusion (delirium or dementia must be evaluated), new incontinence (may indicate UTI, pelvic floor dysfunction, etc.), chest pain, significant dyspnea, sudden vision changes, falls without explanation. PN ROLE: differentiate normal from pathological; adapt assessments and care to older adults (e.g., slower pace, larger font, brighter lighting, fall precautions, medication management for polypharmacy).

Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Health Promotion — Aging

Full Q&A page →

The live vaccine rule every NCLEX candidate must know: MMR and Varicella are LIVE ATTENUATED vaccines — they contain weakened but viable virus. They are absolutely contraindicated in: immunocompromised patients (HIV with low CD4, cancer treatment, high-dose steroids); pregnant women (teratogenic risk, avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks post-vaccination). All inactivated vaccines (DTaP, Hep B, IPV) CAN be given to immunocompromised patients, though the response may be reduced.

Ready to practice all 20 questions?

The full practice test covers every topic area — practice mode with explanations or timed mock exam mode.

Take the PN: Health Promotion and Maintenance practice test →

Or read the NCLEX exam guide for format, scoring, and study tips.