Mental health pharmacology is tested at the level of adverse effects and monitoring. The exam asks: what do you watch for, what triggers intervention, and what is the most dangerous adverse effect?
Key adverse effects: Antipsychotics — EPS (akathisia, dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism), tardive dyskinesia, NMS. Lithium — toxicity above 1.5 mEq/L. SSRIs — serotonin syndrome with other serotonergic drugs.
How these questions were selected
These 10 questions were curated by the 247SimpleTests Editorial Team from our PN: Psychosocial Integrity practice bank. Each was selected because it covers a concept that appears frequently on the real exam and that many candidates find difficult on their first attempt. The full practice test has 20 questions — work through all of them once you've reviewed this guide.
The questions
Question 1
A client says, 'I'm so scared about my surgery tomorrow.' Which response by the nurse is MOST therapeutic?
- 'Don't worry, everything will be fine.'
- 'You sound scared. Tell me more about what's worrying you.' ✓
- 'You shouldn't be scared. The surgeon is very experienced.'
- 'Let me get you some medication to calm you down.'
▶ Show full explanation
The MOST therapeutic response reflects the client's feeling (empathy), validates the emotion, and invites further communication with an open-ended statement. 'You sound scared. Tell me more about what's worrying you' does all three: it names the emotion the client expressed (acknowledging the feeling), validates it as real and worth exploring, and opens the conversation with a non-pressuring invitation. THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION TECHNIQUES: ACTIVE LISTENING — full attention, eye contact, non-verbal engagement; EMPATHY — acknowledging feelings without judgment; REFLECTION — restating content or feelings to show understanding; OPEN-ENDED QUESTIONS/STATEMENTS — 'Tell me more,' 'What are you feeling?' (not yes/no questions); CLARIFICATION — 'I'm not sure I understand, could you explain?'; SILENCE — allowing time to process and think without rushing to fill it; FOCUSING — directing conversation to important areas; SUMMARIZING — pulling together main themes. NON-THERAPEUTIC RESPONSES: FALSE REASSURANCE — 'Don't worry, everything will be fine' — minimizes legitimate feelings and often isn't truthful; GIVING ADVICE — 'You should...' — removes client autonomy; DEFENSIVE — 'Our doctor is excellent' — shifts focus from the client; MINIMIZING — 'It's just a minor surgery' — invalidates concern; PROBING — asking intrusive questions before establishing trust; CHANGING THE SUBJECT — cutting off emotional expression. WHY FALSE REASSURANCE IS HARMFUL: it ends communication, can be dishonest, and leaves the client feeling unheard. The client may stop sharing concerns. Medicating the client without exploring the underlying fear would not address the root issue and could be inappropriate.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Therapeutic CommunicationQuestion 2
Which statement by the nurse is an example of OPEN-ENDED communication?
- 'Are you in pain right now?'
- 'Tell me about how you've been feeling since starting the new medication.' ✓
- 'Did you take your medications this morning?'
- 'Do you prefer the morning or evening dose?'
▶ Show full explanation
An OPEN-ENDED question or statement cannot be answered with a simple 'yes' or 'no'; it invites the client to elaborate and share information in their own words. 'Tell me about how you've been feeling since starting the new medication' is open-ended — the client can share anything they've noticed, positive or negative, in their own terms. This produces richer information than closed questions and demonstrates genuine interest in the client's experience. CLOSED-ENDED questions (options A, C, D) can typically be answered with 'yes,' 'no,' or a single short answer: 'Are you in pain right now?' = yes/no; 'Did you take your medications this morning?' = yes/no; 'Do you prefer the morning or evening dose?' = one word answer. WHEN EACH TYPE IS USEFUL: OPEN-ENDED: for initial assessment, exploring feelings/concerns, when you want comprehensive information, therapeutic relationship building; CLOSED-ENDED: for collecting specific facts quickly, confirming specific information, when the client is very agitated or cannot tolerate long conversations, emergencies. EXAMPLES OF OPEN-ENDED STARTERS: 'Tell me about...'; 'Describe what...'; 'How has...'; 'What has your experience been...'; 'Help me understand...'. EXAMPLES OF CLOSED-ENDED STARTERS: 'Do you...?'; 'Are you...?'; 'Did you...?'; 'Is it...?'; 'Have you...?'. The NCLEX-PN tests the ability to distinguish therapeutic from non-therapeutic communication, and to select the response that best honors the client's autonomy and encourages expression.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Therapeutic Communication TechniquesQuestion 3
A client who was just told he has cancer says, 'There must be a mistake with the test. I feel fine.' Which defense mechanism is this?
- Rationalization
- Denial — refusing to accept a painful reality as a psychological protective response ✓
- Projection
- Sublimation
▶ Show full explanation
DENIAL is the refusal to acknowledge a painful or threatening reality. In this case, the client is refusing to accept the diagnosis ('There must be a mistake') and providing a rationalization for it ('I feel fine'). Denial is often the FIRST stage of grief (Kübler-Ross) and is a common initial response to a devastating diagnosis. SHORT-TERM DENIAL can be protective — it gives the psyche time to adjust. However, PROLONGED DENIAL can prevent a person from seeking needed treatment or making important decisions. NURSING APPROACH: do not immediately challenge denial; give the client time; gently present reality as the relationship develops; avoid reinforcing denial ('Maybe they are wrong'); work with the healthcare team on timing and approach. COMMON DEFENSE MECHANISMS: DENIAL — refusing to accept reality; RATIONALIZATION — making excuses to justify behavior or feelings ('I drink because my job is stressful'); PROJECTION — attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to others ('He's the one who's angry, not me'); SUBLIMATION — channeling unacceptable urges into socially acceptable activities (channeling aggression into competitive sport); DISPLACEMENT — redirecting emotions to a safer target (yelling at the dog after a fight with your boss); REPRESSION — unconsciously blocking painful memories from conscious awareness; REGRESSION — returning to earlier developmental behavior when stressed (a toilet-trained child begins bedwetting during family stress); REACTION FORMATION — acting opposite to how one actually feels (being excessively nice to someone you dislike); INTELLECTUALIZATION — using facts and analysis to avoid emotional processing; SUPPRESSION — CONSCIOUSLY pushing thoughts away (different from repression which is unconscious).
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Coping MechanismsQuestion 4
A nurse is admitting a client with major depressive disorder. Which finding requires the MOST immediate attention?
- Lack of appetite
- Reports of suicidal ideation with a specific plan to harm themselves ✓
- Sleeping 10-12 hours per night
- Decreased interest in hobbies
▶ Show full explanation
SUICIDAL IDEATION WITH A SPECIFIC PLAN represents the HIGHEST PRIORITY finding and requires IMMEDIATE intervention. The presence of a PLAN (as opposed to passive ideation without a plan) significantly elevates risk. The nurse must: notify the RN and provider IMMEDIATELY; implement suicide precautions (1:1 monitoring or close observation per facility policy); ensure environmental safety (remove potential means: sharps, cords, anything that could be used for self-harm); document the statement verbatim and the actions taken; initiate a suicide risk assessment (many facilities use tools like the Columbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale — C-SSRS); do NOT leave the client alone until the plan is in place. SUICIDE RISK FACTORS: DIRECT: suicidal ideation with plan or intent; previous attempts (strongest predictor); giving away possessions; saying goodbye; access to means (firearms, medications); hopelessness; CONTRIBUTING: depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, substance use; history of trauma or abuse; chronic pain or illness; social isolation; recent loss; family history of suicide; impulsivity. OTHER DEPRESSIVE SYMPTOMS (Options A, C, D) are important to address and document but are not immediate safety emergencies: ANOREXIA/weight loss — monitor nutrition, consider nutritional consult; HYPERSOMNIA — common in atypical depression; ANHEDONIA (loss of interest in pleasurable activities) — characteristic symptom. ALL of these symptoms contribute to the diagnostic picture of major depressive disorder and should be thoroughly documented and reported, but none has the same IMMEDIATE SAFETY URGENCY as suicidal ideation with a plan.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Mental Health Concepts, Suicide RiskQuestion 5
A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, 'The government has planted a chip in my brain to control my thoughts.' How should the nurse respond?
- Agree that this is possible to build rapport
- Calmly acknowledge the client's distress without reinforcing the delusion, then redirect to the client's feelings and immediate needs ✓
- Argue that this is impossible and confront the belief directly
- Ignore the statement and change the subject
▶ Show full explanation
A DELUSION is a fixed false belief that is not supported by reality and not part of the client's cultural or religious background. This client is expressing a PARANOID DELUSION (a common type in schizophrenia). THERAPEUTIC APPROACH: DO NOT: AGREE or reinforce the delusion ('That's possible') — reinforcing a false belief delays reality testing and worsens symptoms; ARGUE or confront the delusion directly ('That's impossible, chips can't be planted') — arguing is ineffective because delusions are not amenable to logical persuasion and may escalate the client's agitation or distrust of staff; IGNORE — dismissing the statement invalidates the client's distress. DO: ACKNOWLEDGE THE CLIENT'S DISTRESS without reinforcing the content of the delusion ('I can see that this is upsetting/frightening for you'); REDIRECT to feelings ('That sounds like a frightening experience for you') or to immediate needs ('Let's talk about what we can do to help you feel safe right now'); REMAIN CALM AND NON-THREATENING — paranoid clients may perceive threat from sudden movements, raised voices, too many staff; ASSESS for safety — is the client a danger to self or others based on the delusion?; DOCUMENT the specific content of the delusion. TYPES OF DELUSIONS: PARANOID (being followed, controlled, harmed); GRANDIOSE (special powers, famous identity); REFERENTIAL (events, objects, people have special meaning directed at the client); SOMATIC (false beliefs about the body); EROTOMANIC (belief that a person loves you); NIHILISTIC (belief that one is dead or doesn't exist). NURSING GOAL: keep the therapeutic relationship, keep the client safe, avoid reinforcing symptoms, and redirect to functioning in reality.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Mental Health, DelusionsQuestion 6
A client whose spouse died three weeks ago says, 'Sometimes I think I see him in a crowd and I reach out. Then I remember.' Which interpretation is MOST accurate?
- This indicates a psychotic disorder requiring hospitalization
- This is a NORMAL grief response; brief illusions of a deceased loved one are common in the early grieving period and do not indicate psychosis ✓
- The client should be put on antipsychotics immediately
- The client should be told the deceased is not coming back
▶ Show full explanation
NORMAL GRIEF includes a wide range of experiences that are sometimes distressing but are NOT pathological. Briefly seeing or hearing a deceased loved one (illusions, hypnagogic hallucinations, or simply misidentification of strangers) is very common in early grief — it reflects the mind's difficulty processing that the loved one is truly gone. The client in this scenario CORRECTS THEMSELVES (recognizes it as a mistake) — this is NOT a fixed delusion or ongoing hallucination; it is a transient experience tied to grief, and the client has insight. KÜBLER-ROSS STAGES OF GRIEF (these are stages, not a linear progression; clients move back and forth): DENIAL (shock, disbelief); ANGER (toward self, others, the situation, God); BARGAINING ('If only...', 'What if...'); DEPRESSION (sadness, withdrawal, weeping); ACCEPTANCE (coming to terms). Normal grief experiences include: crying, sadness, anger, guilt, anxiety, insomnia, appetite changes, yearning for the deceased, brief illusions, forgetting the person is dead, reviewing memories repeatedly, social withdrawal. COMPLICATED GRIEF (prolonged grief disorder): grief that is unusually intense, prolonged (typically lasting more than 12 months), or that significantly impairs functioning; symptoms include: inability to accept the death, persistent yearning that doesn't improve over time, difficulty with daily function; REQUIRES clinical assessment and likely therapy. CULTURAL CONSIDERATIONS: grief expressions vary widely by culture — what looks like pathological grief in one cultural lens may be normal in another; assess within cultural context. NURSING APPROACH to grief: empathic listening; normalizing grief responses without minimizing them; assess for complicated grief and suicidal ideation; connect to support resources (grief counseling, support groups, chaplain/spiritual care); avoid platitudes ('Everything happens for a reason').
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Grief and LossQuestion 7
A client is receiving comfort-focused (palliative) care for end-stage cancer. She tells the nurse, 'I want to make sure my family is okay after I'm gone.' What is the MOST appropriate response?
- 'Don't think about that right now.'
- 'That sounds like something very important to you. Tell me more about what you're hoping for them.' ✓
- 'Your family will be fine without you.'
- 'That's not something we need to talk about right now.'
▶ Show full explanation
Clients at end of life often have psychosocial and existential needs that are as important as physical comfort. The concern for her family's wellbeing after her death is a MEANINGFUL END-OF-LIFE CONCERN and the nurse must honor it by creating space to talk. The most therapeutic response invites the client to continue, validates the importance of her concern, and shows genuine interest. END-OF-LIFE PSYCHOSOCIAL NEEDS: LEGACY CONCERNS — ensuring family is cared for, estate matters, letters to loved ones, video messages, completing meaningful projects; RELATIONSHIP REPAIR — resolving conflicts, saying I love you, saying goodbye; SPIRITUAL/EXISTENTIAL — finding peace, forgiveness, meaning in life, hope; FEAR OF THE DYING PROCESS — fear of pain, of being alone, of loss of dignity; FEAR FOR LOVED ONES — a common source of distress, especially for caregivers or parents of young children. NURSING ROLE IN END-OF-LIFE CARE: offer presence and listening (don't rush to fix or give advice); facilitate communication between the client and family; coordinate with social worker, chaplain/spiritual care, and palliative care team; address and document concerns; advocate for client's wishes; support the family as well as the client. WHAT NOT TO DO: dismiss concerns ('Don't think about that'); offer false reassurance ('They'll be fine') without understanding what the client means; redirect away from meaningful topics. ADVANCE CARE PLANNING: help ensure the client's wishes are documented (advance directive, DNR/DNI if desired, designated healthcare proxy/power of attorney for health); these documents should be completed BEFORE a crisis if possible. The NCLEX-PN tests for empathic, client-centered responses that honor the whole person — not just physical symptoms.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — End-of-Life CareQuestion 8
A client who uses heroin is admitted for detoxification. The nurse anticipates symptoms of opioid withdrawal will include which of the following?
- Sedation, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression
- Anxiety, yawning, diaphoresis, rhinorrhea, muscle aching, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, piloerection (gooseflesh), and insomnia — peak within 36-72 hours of last use ✓
- Euphoria and decreased pain sensation
- No significant withdrawal effects
▶ Show full explanation
OPIOID WITHDRAWAL is highly uncomfortable but generally NOT life-threatening (contrast with alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, which CAN be life-threatening). TIMELINE for heroin withdrawal: onset 6-24 hours after last use; peak 36-72 hours; resolution 5-7 days for most symptoms (some protracted symptoms persist weeks). SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS — remember with the mnemonic 'WASHOUT': WATERY EYES AND NOSE (lacrimation, rhinorrhea); AGITATION AND ANXIETY; SWEATING AND SHIVERING; HYPERTENSION AND TACHYCARDIA; OUTRAGEOUS GI SYMPTOMS (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps); URGE TO USE; TERRIBLE MUSCLE ACHES (myalgia); PILOERECTION (gooseflesh — where the term 'cold turkey' comes from). Also: YAWNING, INSOMNIA, DILATED PUPILS (mydriasis — opposite of the pinpoint pupils seen with opioid intoxication). CLINICAL OPIATE WITHDRAWAL SCALE (COWS): standardized tool to assess withdrawal severity; scored 0-48; used to guide medication-assisted treatment. MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT (MAT) for opioid use disorder and withdrawal: METHADONE (full agonist, controlled, dispensed at clinics); BUPRENORPHINE/NALOXONE (Suboxone — partial agonist, outpatient prescription, reduces misuse potential); CLONIDINE (alpha-2 agonist, helps with autonomic symptoms but not a controlled substance; used for comfort); LOPERAMIDE for diarrhea; NSAIDS for muscle pain; ANTI-NAUSEA medications. NURSING CARE: vital signs monitoring (BP, HR — elevated in withdrawal); administer medications as ordered; comfort measures; non-judgmental attitude; harm reduction counseling; connect to MAT program for long-term management; do not abandon client due to substance use disorder — it is a medical condition.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Substance Use, Opioid WithdrawalQuestion 9
A client in the emergency department is suspected of acute alcohol intoxication. Which finding would MOST concern the nurse?
- Slurred speech and relaxed appearance
- Blood alcohol level 0.40% with respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and unconsciousness — signs of potentially fatal alcohol poisoning ✓
- Odor of alcohol on breath
- Mild euphoria and disinhibition
▶ Show full explanation
ALCOHOL POISONING (severe acute alcohol intoxication) is a medical emergency. A blood alcohol level of 0.40% with unconsciousness and respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates LIFE-THREATENING CNS and RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION. Blood alcohol reference points: 0.02-0.05% — mild euphoria, relaxation; 0.05-0.10% — impaired judgment, coordination; 0.10-0.20% — obvious intoxication, slurred speech, unsteady gait; 0.20-0.30% — marked impairment, possible blackout, vomiting with risk of aspiration; 0.30-0.40% — stupor, loss of consciousness; ≥0.40% — potentially FATAL — respiratory depression, coma, death. MANAGEMENT of severe intoxication: ensure AIRWAY patency (aspiration risk if vomiting while unconscious); support BREATHING (supplemental oxygen, possible intubation); IV ACCESS; MONITOR: vital signs, blood alcohol level, glucose (alcohol causes hypoglycemia), electrolytes; THIAMINE (vitamin B1) before any glucose to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy; position LATERAL RECOVERY POSITION if unconscious to reduce aspiration risk; DO NOT induce vomiting; observe for HYPOGLYCEMIA, HYPOTHERMIA (alcohol dilates vessels, increases heat loss); admit to ICU if severe. There is NO antidote for alcohol — treatment is SUPPORTIVE. NALOXONE (Narcan) reverses OPIOID overdose, NOT alcohol — a common misconception. LESSER SIGNS (options A, C, D) represent mild to moderate intoxication — concerning but not immediately life-threatening; still requires monitoring, especially for aspiration and injury.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Substance Use, AlcoholQuestion 10
A client recently diagnosed with a chronic illness states, 'Well, at least this will give me time to focus on my family and work on my writing.' This is an example of which adaptive coping strategy?
- Denial
- Positive reframing (finding meaning or silver linings in adversity) — an adaptive cognitive coping strategy associated with better psychological outcomes ✓
- Repression
- Regression
▶ Show full explanation
POSITIVE REFRAMING (also called cognitive reappraisal or benefit-finding) is an adaptive coping strategy in which the person identifies potential positive aspects or growth opportunities within a difficult situation. This is DIFFERENT from denial: REFRAMING acknowledges the reality of the illness while finding meaning within it; DENIAL would refuse to acknowledge the illness at all. Research shows that positive reframing is associated with: better psychological adjustment to illness; lower rates of depression and anxiety; better immune function; higher quality of life; greater engagement with treatment. COPING STRATEGIES — ADAPTIVE (healthy): PROBLEM-FOCUSED: identifying and addressing the source of stress (seeking information, problem-solving, planning); EMOTION-FOCUSED: managing the emotional response (journaling, talking to someone, exercise, mindfulness); POSITIVE REFRAMING; SPIRITUAL COPING; SEEKING SOCIAL SUPPORT; HUMOR; ACCEPTANCE. MALADAPTIVE (unhealthy): DENIAL (prolonged); SUBSTANCE USE; SOCIAL WITHDRAWAL (excessive); SELF-BLAME (rumination); CATASTROPHIZING; AVOIDANCE; VIOLENCE. RESILIENCE: the ability to adapt well in the face of adversity; can be developed and strengthened; resilience factors include social support, problem-solving skills, optimism, sense of purpose, self-efficacy. PN ROLE: recognize and affirm adaptive coping; avoid pathologizing normal responses; provide a therapeutic environment for clients to explore their feelings; connect clients to support resources; help identify coping strategies that have worked in the past; model non-judgmental acceptance.
Source: NCLEX-PN Test Plan: Psychosocial — Coping, Adaptive StrategiesNMS vs serotonin syndrome: NMS (antipsychotics) — muscle rigidity, develops over days. Serotonin syndrome (serotonergic drugs) — clonus and hyperreflexia, not rigidity, develops rapidly. Both are emergencies requiring the offending drug to be stopped.
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