NCLEX · Study Guide

NCLEX-PN Delegation and Scope of Practice — 10 Practice Questions

Delegation questions are the most heavily tested management topic on the NCLEX-PN. These questions focus specifically on LPN/LVN scope — what you can delegate to a UAP and what remains within PN scope.

The NCLEX-PN tests delegation from two angles: what the RN can delegate to the LPN/LVN, and what the LPN/LVN can delegate to the UAP. Both appear on the exam. The key principle is the same in both cases: nursing judgment, assessment, and care planning cannot be delegated down the chain.

LPN/LVN scope summary: Can — administer routine medications, perform wound care, monitor stable patients, reinforce (not initiate) patient teaching, insert urinary catheters. Cannot — perform initial comprehensive assessments on complex patients, develop care plans, administer IV push medications in most states, or independently manage unstable patients.

Source

How these questions were selected

These 10 questions were curated by the 247SimpleTests Editorial Team from our PN: Coordinated Care practice bank. Each was selected because it covers a concept that appears frequently on the real exam and that many candidates find difficult on their first attempt. The full practice test has 25 questions — work through all of them once you've reviewed this guide.

The questions

Question 1

Which task is most appropriate for an LPN/LVN to perform under the supervision of an RN?

  1. Develop the initial nursing care plan for a newly admitted client
  2. Reinforce client teaching from a plan that the RN has already developed and initiated ✓
  3. Conduct the initial admission assessment of a complex postoperative client
  4. Perform triage in the emergency department
▶ Show full explanation

LPN/LVN scope of practice is more limited than RN scope. The RN is responsible for INITIAL assessments, developing care plans, and providing initial teaching. The LPN's role is to REINFORCE existing teaching, contribute to data collection, and provide care within established plans. Key LPN scope principles tested on NCLEX-PN: (1) Cannot perform initial assessments of unstable or complex clients (LPN can reassess stable clients); (2) Cannot create the initial nursing care plan (LPN contributes data, RN creates plan); (3) Cannot provide initial teaching (LPN reinforces RN's teaching); (4) Cannot administer IV push medications in most states (state-specific); (5) Cannot perform triage independently in most settings; (6) Cannot hang blood (in most states); (7) CAN administer most medications, perform routine procedures, monitor stable clients, reinforce teaching, document care. Scope varies by state — when in doubt on NCLEX-PN, choose the answer that keeps the LPN within the traditional supportive role under RN supervision.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Coordinated Care

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Question 2

An LPN is caring for four clients. Which client should the LPN see first?

  1. A client requesting pain medication 3 hours after last dose
  2. A client with new-onset shortness of breath and chest pain ✓
  3. A client needing assistance with morning hygiene
  4. A client asking about discharge instructions
▶ Show full explanation

Priority-setting questions are heavily tested on NCLEX-PN. Use the ABC framework: Airway, Breathing, Circulation. The client with new-onset shortness of breath and chest pain has potential airway/breathing/circulation compromise — this could be MI, PE, pulmonary edema, or another life-threatening emergency. This client is assessed FIRST. Other clients have non-urgent needs: (1) Pain medication can wait a few minutes for the priority assessment; (2) Hygiene assistance is important but not urgent; (3) Discharge teaching is also important but not urgent. Maslow's hierarchy is another tool: physiological needs (especially airway, breathing, circulation) come before safety, love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization. When multiple physiological needs compete, ABC + life threats first. Always ask: 'Which client is at greatest risk of harm in the next 5-15 minutes?' That client is first.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Priority Setting

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Question 3

Which infection control precautions are appropriate for a client with active tuberculosis (TB)?

  1. Standard precautions only
  2. Airborne precautions: private negative-pressure room, N95 respirator for staff, door kept closed, client wears surgical mask when leaving the room ✓
  3. Contact precautions: gown and gloves
  4. Droplet precautions: surgical mask only
▶ Show full explanation

Transmission-based precautions for NCLEX-PN: (1) AIRBORNE — for organisms transmitted by very small droplet nuclei suspended in air: TB, measles, varicella (chickenpox), disseminated zoster, COVID-19 in high-risk procedures, SARS, MERS. Requires: private NEGATIVE-PRESSURE room with door closed, N95 respirator (fit-tested) for all staff entering, client wears surgical mask when transported. (2) DROPLET — for larger droplets traveling shorter distances: influenza, pertussis (whooping cough), mumps, rubella, meningococcal infections, group A strep. Requires: private room (or cohort), surgical mask within 3-6 feet, client wears surgical mask when transported. (3) CONTACT — for direct or indirect contact with skin/wounds/surfaces: C. difficile, MRSA, VRE, scabies, RSV, hepatitis A in diapered patients. Requires: gown and gloves on entry, dedicated equipment, hand hygiene with soap and water for C. diff (alcohol-based sanitizer doesn't kill C. diff spores). Standard precautions apply to ALL clients regardless of diagnosis: hand hygiene, gloves when contacting body fluids, mask/eye protection if splashing risk. Memorize the categories and which organisms fit each — heavily tested on NCLEX.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Infection Control

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Question 4

What is the correct procedure for using restraints on a client?

  1. Apply restraints whenever a client is confused
  2. Use only as a last resort with a physician's order, the least restrictive type effective, with frequent (every 15-30 min) checks, regular release for ROM and toileting, documented justification, and time-limited orders ✓
  3. Tie restraints to side rails for security
  4. Apply restraints permanently
▶ Show full explanation

Restraint use is heavily regulated due to patient safety, dignity, and legal concerns. CMS, Joint Commission, and state laws require strict protocols. Key principles: (1) LAST RESORT — only after less restrictive measures (reorientation, distraction, family presence, bed/chair alarms, environmental modifications, sitter) have failed; (2) ORDER REQUIRED — physician/APN order within specified timeframe (varies); cannot be PRN (as-needed) standing orders; must be specific (type, reason, duration); (3) LEAST RESTRICTIVE — use the minimum restraint needed (e.g., one-point first before four-point); (4) TIME-LIMITED — orders limited to specific timeframes: 4 hours for adults, 2 hours for ages 9-17, 1 hour for under 9; (5) MONITORING — check every 15-30 minutes; assess skin integrity, circulation, respiratory status, hydration, hygiene, ROM, behavioral status, need for continued restraint; (6) RELEASE — every 2 hours minimum for ROM, toileting, hydration, repositioning; (7) ATTACHMENT — to bed FRAME, not side rails (side rails can be raised/lowered, injuring the patient); quick-release knots; (8) DOCUMENTATION — type, time, reason, alternatives tried, checks, releases, removal criteria; (9) CONTINUOUS REASSESSMENT — discontinue ASAP when criteria for removal met. Chemical restraints (medications used to restrict movement, not for medical condition) are also regulated. Side rails as restraints: all four rails up = restraint; partial rails for mobility assistance = not restraint.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Restraints

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Question 5

Which is the highest priority action when a fire is discovered in a healthcare facility?

  1. Call 911 first
  2. Use the RACE acronym in order: Rescue clients in immediate danger, Alarm (pull fire alarm, notify staff), Contain (close doors and windows), Extinguish (only if small and safe to do so) or Evacuate ✓
  3. Fight the fire personally
  4. Lock all doors
▶ Show full explanation

Fire safety in healthcare facilities uses the RACE acronym: R = RESCUE — clients in immediate danger first; move ambulatory clients first, then assistive clients, then non-ambulatory; A = ALARM — pull the nearest fire alarm, dial the facility emergency code, notify other staff; C = CONTAIN — close doors and windows to contain fire and smoke (a closed door significantly slows fire spread); E = EXTINGUISH (if small and safe) using the PASS technique for fire extinguishers, OR EVACUATE if fire is too large. PASS for fire extinguishers: P = Pull the pin, A = Aim at the base of the fire, S = Squeeze the handle, S = Sweep side to side. Extinguisher types: Class A (ordinary combustibles - paper, wood), Class B (flammable liquids - oil, gas), Class C (electrical), Class D (combustible metals), Class K (kitchen - cooking oils/fats); ABC extinguishers are most common in hospitals. Evacuation priority: ambulatory first (they can move themselves), wheelchair/assisted next, bedridden last (using sheets/blankets to slide them, evacuation chairs). Horizontal evacuation (to next fire compartment) before vertical (down stairs). Never use elevators during a fire.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Fire Safety

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Question 6

Which task can the LPN appropriately delegate to a Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA/UAP)?

  1. Administering oral medications
  2. Taking routine vital signs on a stable client and recording oral intake/output ✓
  3. Performing the initial wound assessment
  4. Teaching the client about a new medication
▶ Show full explanation

Delegation to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP/CNA) follows the 'Five Rights of Delegation' (NCSBN): RIGHT TASK, RIGHT CIRCUMSTANCE, RIGHT PERSON, RIGHT DIRECTION/COMMUNICATION, RIGHT SUPERVISION. UAPs CAN typically perform: routine vital signs on stable clients; bathing/hygiene/ADLs; ambulation assistance; positioning; toileting; feeding (stable clients); measuring intake/output; weights; basic skin care; transport. UAPs CANNOT perform: medication administration (in most states); assessments (only data collection, not interpretation); teaching; sterile procedures; care of unstable clients; tasks requiring nursing judgment. The LPN must consider the UAP's training/competency, the client's stability, and state regulations. Even when delegating, the nurse remains accountable for the outcome. Common NCLEX delegation pitfalls: (1) Delegating to UAP what only an RN can do; (2) LPN trying to delegate something outside their own scope; (3) Assuming any UAP can do everything every UAP can do (training varies); (4) Failing to give clear instructions and verify understanding; (5) Failing to follow up and supervise. When in doubt, retain the task yourself or escalate to RN.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Delegation

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Question 7

A UAP reports that a stable post-op client's vital signs are: BP 138/82, HR 88, RR 18, T 99.2°F. What should the LPN do?

  1. Ignore the report
  2. Acknowledge the report, note the values are within expected range for this client, document, and continue monitoring per orders ✓
  3. Have the UAP retake the vitals
  4. Call the surgeon immediately
▶ Show full explanation

Effective delegation requires the nurse to receive, evaluate, and act on UAP reports. These vitals are within normal/expected ranges: BP 138/82 (slightly elevated but not concerning in immediate post-op), HR 88, RR 18, T 99.2°F (mild post-op temperature is common from inflammation, atelectasis, or surgical stress and is not concerning unless >100.4°F or with other symptoms). The LPN should: (1) Acknowledge the UAP's report — reinforces good communication; (2) Compare values to baseline, ordered parameters, and clinical context; (3) Document; (4) Continue per orders. Don't dismiss reports — UAPs need to feel heard. Don't escalate unnecessarily — but DO escalate when values are abnormal or trending poorly. Don't have UAP retake without a reason. Don't call physician for normal values. NCLEX delegation answers often test whether you appropriately respond to data from UAPs vs over-react or under-react.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Supervising UAP

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Question 8

Which is the BEST example of correct nursing documentation?

  1. Client seems uncomfortable today
  2. Client reports pain 7/10 in surgical site, sharp and constant, worsens with movement; grimacing observed; medicated with morphine 4 mg IV as ordered at 1045 ✓
  3. Client is doing fine
  4. Client appears to be getting better
▶ Show full explanation

Documentation principles: (1) OBJECTIVE — what you see, measure, hear, smell; not what you infer or feel; (2) SPECIFIC — exact measurements, locations, times, doses; (3) FACTUAL — direct quotes from client when appropriate; (4) TIMELY — document as soon as possible after care; (5) COMPLETE — addresses assessment, intervention, response; (6) LEGIBLE/ACCURATE — if paper, neat; if electronic, in correct fields. Words to AVOID: 'seems,' 'appears,' 'looks like,' 'doing fine,' 'normal,' 'good,' 'OK' (subjective/vague); 'accidentally' or 'mistakenly' (legal implications); judgmental descriptions ('difficult patient,' 'demanding family'). DAR documentation: Data (objective and subjective findings), Action (what you did), Response (client's response to your action). SOAP: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan. Charting by exception: only documenting deviations from established norms. Late entries: marked as 'late entry' with current date/time, then describe event with original date/time. Errors: single line through, write 'error' or 'mistaken entry,' initial and date — never erase, white-out, or obliterate. Documentation may be the only evidence in legal proceedings; chart as if you'll be asked to defend each entry in court.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Documentation

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Question 9

A client refuses a prescribed medication, stating they don't want it. What is the BEST nursing response?

  1. Force the client to take the medication
  2. Respect the client's right to refuse, explore the reason for refusal, provide education about the medication's purpose and consequences of refusal, document the refusal and teaching, notify the prescriber ✓
  3. Sneak the medication in food
  4. Ignore the refusal and document as 'medication given'
▶ Show full explanation

Client autonomy is a fundamental right protected by law and ethics. Competent adult clients have the right to refuse any treatment, even if refusal leads to harm or death (with limited exceptions like emergency life-saving treatment of unconscious patients, court-ordered treatment, public health emergencies, certain psychiatric situations). When a client refuses: (1) RESPECT the refusal — don't argue, force, or deceive; (2) EXPLORE the reason — sometimes refusal stems from misunderstanding, fear, side effects, cultural beliefs, financial concerns, or feeling unheard; addressing the root cause often resolves the refusal; (3) EDUCATE — explain the medication's purpose, expected benefits, risks of not taking; (4) DOCUMENT — exact words of refusal, education provided, client's understanding, time, notification to others; (5) NOTIFY — prescriber and team so alternatives can be considered; (6) RESPECT FINAL DECISION — if client still refuses after education, document and respect; consider against medical advice (AMA) documentation in some situations. Sneaking medications (in food, without knowledge) is BATTERY — physically touching/giving medication without consent is a legal and ethical violation. Documenting as 'given' when not given is FRAUD. Forcing medication is BATTERY and ASSAULT. Special situations: psychiatric holds may permit involuntary medication in specific circumstances; minors require parental consent; cognitively impaired clients may have surrogate decision-makers; emergencies may permit life-saving treatment.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Client Rights

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Question 10

What is the correct procedure when obtaining informed consent for a surgical procedure?

  1. The nurse explains the procedure and obtains consent
  2. The physician/surgeon explains the procedure, risks, benefits, alternatives; the nurse witnesses the signature, confirms client understanding, and ensures the consent is in the chart before the procedure ✓
  3. Family members sign for adult clients
  4. Verbal consent is sufficient
▶ Show full explanation

Informed consent has specific legal requirements. Elements of valid informed consent: (1) The client must be COMPETENT (legal capacity to consent — adults presumed competent unless determined otherwise; minors generally cannot consent, parent/guardian does; cognitively impaired adults may have surrogate decision-makers); (2) Disclosure of: nature of procedure, expected benefits, risks (common and serious), alternatives (including no treatment), expected outcomes with and without treatment; (3) UNDERSTANDING — client comprehends the information (use teach-back, interpreters when needed, written materials); (4) VOLUNTARY — no coercion or undue pressure; (5) WRITTEN AGREEMENT — signed consent form. Responsibilities: PHYSICIAN/SURGEON/INDEPENDENT PROVIDER is responsible for the actual explanation of the procedure, risks, benefits, alternatives. NURSE'S ROLE: (a) witness the signature (confirming the person signing is the client and is signing voluntarily); (b) confirm client understands what was explained (if not, contact the provider to re-explain — not the nurse's role to explain the procedure itself); (c) ensure consent is on chart before procedure; (d) advocate for the client; (e) document. Special situations: emergencies (implied consent for life-saving treatment of unconscious adult); minors (parental consent except for specific exceptions — emancipated minors, mature minor doctrine in some states, certain treatments like STIs, contraception, pregnancy, mental health in many states); incompetent adults (durable power of attorney for healthcare, guardian, or surrogate per state law); Jehovah's Witness blood refusals (respected for adults; courts may override for minors); blood products may require separate consent.

Source: NCSBN NCLEX-PN, Informed Consent

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The delegation question strategy: When the NCLEX asks what the LPN should do, ask: is this a task requiring RN-level assessment or judgment? If yes, the answer is to report to the RN. Is this within LPN scope? If yes, the LPN can proceed. Is this a routine task with no assessment component? If yes, it can potentially be delegated to a UAP. This three-question filter answers most delegation items correctly.

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